Chemistry

1. Which of the following lamps provides a

continuous spectrum of radiant energy in

the visible, near IR, and near UV regions

of the spectrum?

A. Tungsten-filament

B. Hydrogen

C. Deuterium

D. Mercury vapor

A. Tungsten-filament

2. Which of the following isolates light

within a narrow region of the spectrum?

A. Photomultiplier tube

B. Monochromator

C. Photovoltaic cell

D. Detector

B. Monochromator

3. Which of the following is not descriptive

of a photomultiplier tube?

A. Emits electrons proportionally to

initial light absorbed

B. Must be shielded from stray light

C. Cannot be used with a chopper

D. Amplifies the initial signal received

C. Cannot be used with a chopper

4. Which of the following is false about

a photomultiplier tube?

A. Converts radiant energy (light)

to electrical energy (current)

B. Amplifies the current significantly

C. Has a very rapid response time

D. Is composed of an iron plate and

a layer of selenium

D. Is composed of an iron plate and

a layer of selenium

5. Which type of photodetector employs

a linear arrangement that allows it to

respond to a specific wavelength resulting

in complete UV/visible spectrum analysis?

A. Photomultiplier tube

B. Phototube

C. Barrier layer cell

D. Photodiode array

D. Photodiode array

6. When performing spectrophotometer

quality assurance checks, what is the

holmium oxide glass filter used to assess?

A. Linearity

B. Stray light

C. Absorbance accuracy

D. Wavelength accuracy

D. Wavelength accuracy

7. In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the

purpose of the reagent blank?

A. Correct for interfering chromogens

B. Correct for lipemia

C. Correct for protein

D. Correct for color contribution of the

reagents

D. Correct for color contribution of the

reagents

8. In regard to bichromatic analysis, which

of the following is false?

A. Absorbance is measured at the

spectral absorbance peak for a blank

and the sample using the same

wavelength.

B. Eliminates background interferences

C. Sample concentration determined

from difference in two measured

absorbances

D. Functions as a reference blank for

each sample

A. Absorbance is measured at the

spectral absorbance peak for a blank

and the sample using the same

wavelength.

9. The bandpass of a spectrophotometer is

10 nm. If an instalment is set at 540 nm,

the wavelengths that are permitted to

impinge on the sample will be within what

wavelength range?

A. 530-540 nm

B. 530-550 nm

C. 535-545 nm

D. 540-550 nm

C. 535-545 nm

10. Which of the following formulas is an

expression of the Beer-Lambert law that is

routinely applied to spectrophotometric

analysis?

Cv

A. Au X Cs/As = Cu

B. Cu X Cs/As = Au

C. As X Cs/Cu = Au

D. A = 2 - log %T

A. Au X Cs/As = Cu

1 1 . In spectrophotometry, which of the

following is a mathematical expression

of the relationship between absorbance

and transmittance?

A. A = abc

B. Au/Cu = As/Cs

C. A = 2 - log %T

D. A = log %T

C. A = 2 - log %T

12. Which of the following is not a problem

inherent in turbidimetry?

A. Variation in particle size of samples

B. Variation in particle size of standards

C. Rate of aggregation or settling of

particles

D. Need to maintain a constant and

specific temperature

D. Need to maintain a constant and

specific temperature

13. Which of the following may be associated

with reflectance spectrophotometry

as it relates to the dry reagent slide

technique?

A. Light projected to the slide at

180-degree angle

B. Dye concentration directly

proportional to reflectance

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected

by photodetector

D. Reflectance values are linearly

proportional to transmission values

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected

by photodetector

14. Fluorometers are designed so that the

path of the exciting light is at a right

angle to the path of the emitted light.

What is the purpose of this design?

A. Prevent loss of emitted light

B. Prevent loss of the excitation light

C. Focus emitted and excitation light

upon the detector

D. Prevent excitation light from reaching

the detector

D. Prevent excitation light from reaching

the detector

15. Which of the following represents

a primary advantage of performing

fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic

methods of analysis?

A. Increased specificity and increased

sensitivity

B. Increased specificity and decreased

sensitivity

C. Purity of reagents used not as critical

D. Ease of performing assays

A. Increased specificity and increased

sensitivity

16. Which of the following may be associated

with fluorescence polarization?

A. Plane-polarized light is used for

sample excitation.

B. Small molecular complexes show

a greater amount of polarization.

C. It is a heterogeneous technique

employed in fluorophore-ligand

immunoassays.

D. Polarized light detected is directly

proportional to concentration of ligand

in sample.

A. Plane-polarized light is used for

sample excitation.

17. Which of the following may be associated

with bioluminescence?

A. Light emission produced due to

enzymatic oxidation of a substrate

B. Less sensitive than direct fluorescent

assays

C. Electron excitation caused by radiant

energy

D. Employs a radioactive label

A. Light emission produced due to

enzymatic oxidation of a substrate

18. Nephelometry is based on the measurement

of light that is

A. Absorbed by particles in suspension

B. Scattered by particles in suspension

C. Produced by fluorescence

D. Produced by excitation of ground-state

atoms

B. Scattered by particles in suspension

19. Which of the following instruments is used in the clinical laboratory or in reference laboratories to detect beta and gamma emissions?

A. Fluorometer

B. Nephelometer

C. Scintillation counter

D. Spectrophotometer

C. Scintillation counter

20. Which of the following best describes

chemiluminescence?

A. Electron excitation caused by radiant

energy

B. Enzymatic oxidation of a substrate

produces light emission

C. Chemical energy excites electrons that

emit light upon return to ground state

D. Employs a fluorescent label that

produces light

C. Chemical energy excites electrons that

emit light upon return to ground state

21. In assaying an analyte with a single-beam

atomic absoiption spectrophotometer,

what is the instrument actually measuring?

A. Intensity of light emitted by the

analyte on its return to the ground state

B. Intensity of light that the analyte

absorbs from the hollow-cathode lamp

C. Intensity of light that the analyte

absorbs from the flame

D. Intensity of the beam from the hollowcathode

lamp after it has passed

through the analyte-containing flame

D. Intensity of the beam from the hollowcathode

lamp after it has passed

through the analyte-containing flame

22. What is the function of the flame in atomic

absorption spectroscopy?

A. Absorb the energy emitted from the

metal analyte in returning to ground

state

B. Supply the thermal energy needed to

excite the metal analyte

C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground

state

D. Supply the light that is absorbed by the

metal analyte

C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground

state

23. Most atomic absorption spectrophotometers

incorporate a beam chopper and a tuned

amplifier. The purpose of these components

is to avoid errors that would be caused by

A. Variations in flame temperature

B. Deterioration of the hollow-cathode

lamp

C. Stray light from the hollow-cathode

lamp

D. Measurement of light emitted by the

analyte

D. Measurement of light emitted by the

analyte

24. In potentiometry, which of the following

is considered the standard electrode?

A. Hydrogen electrode

B. Calcium electrode

C. Potassium electrode

D. Copper electrode

A. Hydrogen electrode

25. In an electrolytic cell, which of the

following is the half-cell where reduction

takes place?

A. Anode

B. Cathode

C. Combination electrode

D. Electrode response

B. Cathode

26. Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous

chloride in contact with saturated

potassium chloride solution is a description

of which of the following types of

electrodes?

A. Sodium

B. Calomel

C. Calcium

D. Silver/silver chloride

B. Calomel

27. When a pH-sensitive glass electrode is not

actively in use, in what type of solution

should it be kept?

A. Tap water

B. Physiologic saline solution

C. The medium recommended by the

manufacturer

D. A buffer solution of alkaline pH

C. The medium recommended by the

manufacturer

28. When measuring K+ with an ion-selective

electrode by means of a liquid ionexchange

membrane, what antibiotic will

be incorporated into the membrane?

A. Monactin

B. Nonactin

C. Streptomycin

D. Valinomycin

D. Valinomycin

29. Which of the following is false about ion-selective electrode analysis of sodium?

A. Uses a glass membrane

B. Errors occur from protein buildup on the membrane.

C. Membrane coated with valinomycin

D. Principle based on potentiometry

C. Membrane coated with valinomycin

30. What are the principles of operation for a

chloride analyzer that generates silver ions

as part of its reaction mechanism?

A. Potentiometry and amperometry

B. Amperometry and polarography

C. Coulometry and potentiometry

D. Amperometry and coulometry

D. Amperometry and coulometry

31. When quantifying glucose using an

amperometric glucose electrode system,

which of the following is not a component

of the system?

A. Product oxidation produces a current

B. Hydrogen peroxide formed

C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose

D. Platinum electrode

C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose

32. To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/

blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that

A. The barometric pressure be known

and used for adjustments

B. Calibrating gases of known high and

low concentrations be used

C. The calibration be performed at room

temperature

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be

used

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be

used

33. The measurement of CO2 in blood by means

of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the

A. Passage of H+ ions through the

membrane that separates the sample

and the electrode

B. Change in pH because of increased

carbonic acid in the electrolyte

surrounding the electrodes

C. Movement of bicarbonate across the

membrane that separates the sample

and the electrode

D. Linear relationship between PCO2 in

the sample and measured pH

B. Change in pH because of increased

carbonic acid in the electrolyte

surrounding the electrodes

34. The measurement of oxygen in blood by

means of a PO2 electrode involves which

of the following?

A. Wheatstone bridge arrangement of

resistive elements sensitive to oxygen

concentration

B. Direct relationship between amount of

oxygen in the sample and amount of

current flowing in the measuring system

C. Change in current resulting from

an increase of free silver ions in solution

D. Glass electrode sensitive to H+ ions

B. Direct relationship between amount of

oxygen in the sample and amount of

current flowing in the measuring system

35. Which of the following blood gas parameters

are measured directly by the blood gas

analyzer electrochemically as opposed to

being calculated by the instrument?

A. pH, HCC-3, total CO2

B. PCO2, HCOJ, PO2

C. pH, PCO2, K)2

D. PO2, HCOf, total CO2

C. pH, PCO2, K)2

36. Which of the following statements is

false about anodic stripping voltammetry

(ASV)?

A. Based on potentiometry

B. Occurs in an electrochemical cell

C. Involves preconcentration of the

analyte by electroplating

D. Used to measure lead

A. Based on potentiometry

37. Which of the following methods allows

for the separation of charged particles

based on their rates of migration in an

electric field?

A. Rheophoresis

B. Electrophoresis

C. Electroendosmosis

D. Ion exchange

B. Electrophoresis

38. Which of the following techniques is

based on electro-osmotic flow?

A. Capillary electrophoresis

B. Zone electrophoresis

C. Iontophoresis

D. Isoelectric focusing

A. Capillary electrophoresis

39. Which of the following is not a type of

support media used for serum protein

electrophoresis?

A. Agarose gel

B. Cellulose acetate

C. Acrylamide

D. Celite

D. Celite

40. In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of the following characterizes the proteins?

A. Exhibit net negative charge

B. Exhibit net positive charge

C. Exhibit charge neutrality

D. Migrate toward the cathode

A. Exhibit net negative charge

41. Which of the following characteristics will

a protein have at its isoelectric point?

A. Net negative charge

B. Net positive charge

C. Net zero charge

D. Mobility

C. Net zero charge

42. What dye may be used for staining protein

bands following electrophoresis?

A. Fat red 7B

B. Sudan blackB

C. Ponceau S

D. Oil redO

C. Ponceau S

43. When electrophoresis is performed, holes

appear in the staining pattern, giving the

stained protein band a doughnut-like

appearance. What is the probable cause

of this problem?

A. Protein denatured and will not stain

properly

B. Ionic strength of the buffer was too

high

C. Protein reached its isoelectric point

and precipitated out

D. Protein concentration was too high

D. Protein concentration was too high

44. What is the purpose of using ampholytes

in isoelectric focusing?

A. Maintain the polyacrylamide gel in

a solid state

B. Maintain the protein sample in

a charged state

C. Maintain the pH of the buffer

solution

D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

45. Which of the following is not associated

with silver stains?

A. Reactive to nanogram concentrations

of proteins

B. Polypeptides stain a variety of colors

C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant

blue

D. Preconcentration of CSF not

necessary

C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant

blue

46. Which of the following is not associated

with isoelectric focusing?

A. Continuous pH gradient

B. Migration of proteins with net charge

of zero

C. Separation dependent on isoelectric

point

D. Zone electrophoresis

B. Migration of proteins with net charge

of zero

47. Which of the following is an electrophoretic

technique employing a pH

gradient that separates molecules with

similar isoelectric points?

A. Zone electrophoresis

B. High-resolution electrophoresis

C. Isoelectric focusing

D. Immunoelectrophoresis

C. Isoelectric focusing

48. Given the following information on

a particular compound that has been

visualized by means of thin-layer

chromatography, calculate the /fyof

the compound.

Distance from origin to spot

center = 48 mm

Distance from spot center to solvent

front = 93 mm

Distance from origin to solvent

front = 141 mm

A. 0.29

B. 0.34

C. 0.52

D. 0.66

B. In thin-layer chromatography (TLC), the

Rf (retention factor) describes the distance traveled

by the solute (compound of interest) in relation

to the distance traveled by the solvent

(mobile phase). Measurements of the TLC plate

are made from the origin or point of sample

application to the center of the developed spot

and from the origin to the solvent front. An Rf

may be calculated by means of the following

formula:

Rf =

(Distance from origin to spot center) /

(Distance from origin to solvent front)

Rf =

48mm /

141 mm

= 0.34

49. To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, to what type of detector system could a gas chromatograph be coupled?

A. UV spectrophotometer

B. Bichromatic spectrophotometer

C. Mass spectrometer

D. Fluorescence detector

C. Mass spectrometer

50. Which of the following instruments has

a sample-introduction system, solventdelivery

system, column, and detector

as components?

A. Atomic absorption spectrometer

B. Mass spectrometer

C. High-performance liquid

chromatograph

D. Nephelometer

C. High-performance liquid

chromatograph

51. Which type of elution technique may be

used in high-performance liquid chromatography?

A. Amphoteric

B. Isoelectric

C. Gradient

D. Ion exchange

C. Gradient

52. Which of the following statements best

describes discrete analysis?

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled

separately in its own reaction vessel.

B. Samples are analyzed in a flowing

stream of reagent.

C. Analyzer must be dedicated to

measurement of only one analyte.

D. It does not have random access

capability.

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled

separately in its own reaction vessel.

53. Which of the following chromatography

systems may be described as having a

stationary phase that is liquid absorbed on

particles packed in a column and a liquid

moving phase that is pumped through a

column?

A. Thin-layer

B. High-performance liquid

C. Ion-exchange

D. Gas-liquid

B. High-performance liquid

54. Which of the following chromatography

systems is characterized by a stationary

phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and

a moving phase of liquid?

A. Thin-layer

B. Ion-exchange

C. Gas-liquid

D. Partition

A. Thin-layer

55. Which of the following does not apply to

gas-liquid chromatography?

A. Separation depends on volatility of the

sample.

B. Separation depends on the sample's

solubility in the liquid layer of the

stationary phase.

C. Stationary phase is a liquid layer

adsorbed on the column packing.

D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped

through the column.

D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped

through the column.

56. Ion-exchange chromatography separates

solutes in a sample based on the

A. Solubility of the solutes

B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge

C. Adsorption ability of the solutes

D. Molecular size

B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge

57. Which parameter is used in mass

spectrometry to identify a compound?

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio

B. Molecular size

C. Absorption spectrum

D. Retention time

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio

58. Which chromatography system is

commonly used in conjunction with mass

spectrometry?

A. High-performance liquid

B. Ion-exchange

C. Partition

D. Gas-liquid

D. Gas-liquid

59. Which of the following may be a

sampling source of error for an

automated instrument?

A. Short sample

B. Air bubble in bottom of sample cup

C. Fibrin clot in sample probe

D. All the above

D. All the above

60. Checking instrument calibration,

temperature accuracy, and electronic

parameters are part of

A. Preventive maintenance

B. Quality control

C. Function verification

D. Precision verification

C. Function verification

61. For which of the following laboratory

instalments should preventive maintenance

procedures be performed and recorded?

A. Analytical balance

B. Centrifuge

C. Chemistry analyzer

D. All the above

D. All the above

62. Which of the following is not the reason

that preventive maintenance schedules

are required?

A. Keep instrument components clean

B. Replace worn parts

C. Extend the life of the equipment

D. Keep personnel busy when the

laboratory work is slow

D. Keep personnel busy when the

laboratory work is slow

63. Which globin chains compose hemoglobin

Aj?

A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains

B. Two alpha chains and two delta chains

C. Two alpha chains and two gamma

chains

D. Two beta chains and two delta chains

A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains

64. Which hemoglobin may be differentiated

from other hemoglobins on the basis

of its resistance to denature in alkaline

solution?

A. A,

B. A2

C. C

D. F

D. F

65. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal hemoglobin

that is characterized by a substitution of

which amino acid?

A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6

on the beta chain

B. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6

on the alpha chain

C. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6

on the beta chain

D. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6

on the alpha chain

A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6

on the beta chain

66. When performing electrophoresis at pH

8.6, which hemoglobin molecule migrates

the fastest on cellulose acetate toward the

anode?

A. A!

B. A2

C. F

D. S

A. A!

67. Because of similar electrophoretic mobilities,

several hemoglobins cannot be

differentiated on cellulose acetate medium.

Electrophoresis of hemoglobins at pH 6.2

on agar gel may be useful in differentiating

which hemoglobins?

A. AI from A2

B. A! from D

C. A, from E

D. CfromA2

D. CfromA2

68. In addition to performing hemoglobin

electrophoresis, a solubility test may be

performed to detect the presence of what

hemoglobin?

A. A,

B. C

C. F

D. S

D. S

69. Which of the following is not quantified

using an immunoassay method?

A. Vitamins

B. Hormones

C. Electrolytes

D. Drugs

C. Electrolytes

70. Which of the following is a homogeneous immunoassay where separation of the bound from the free labeled species is not required?

A. Radioimmunoassay

B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

C. Immunoradiometric assay

D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique

D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique

71. The substance to be measured reacts with

a specific macromolecule of limited

binding capacity. Which of the following

assays does not employ this principle?

A. Chemiluminescence immunoassay

B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay

technique

C. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay

D. High-performance liquid chromatography

D. High-performance liquid chromatography

72. Which of the following is not associated

with the enzyme-multiplied immunoassay

technique (EMIT)?

A. Is a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay

B. Determines antigen concentration

C. Employs a labeled reactant

D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum

sample

D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum

sample

73. When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled

to

A. Antibody

B. Antigen

C. Substrate

D. Coenzyme

B. Antigen

74. The enzyme activity measured in the

EMIT is the result of the reaction between

the substrate and coenzyme with

A. Free antibody

B. Free unlabeled antigen

C. Free labeled antigen

D. Labeled antigen-antibody complexes

C. Free labeled antigen

75. Singlet oxygen reacting with a precursor

chemiluminescent compound to form a

decay product whose light energizes a

fluorophore best describes

A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay

B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay

technique

C. Electrochemiluminescence immunoassay

D. Luminescent oxygen channeling

immunoassay

D. Luminescent oxygen channeling

immunoassay

76. Which of the following stimulates the production of singlet oxygen at the surface of the sensitizer particle in a luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay?

A. Radiant energy

B. Heat energy

C. Enzymatic reaction

D. Fluorescent irradiation

A. Radiant energy

77. Proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids are the

three major biochemical compounds of

human metabolism. What is the element

that distinguishes proteins from carbohydrate

and lipid compounds?

A. Carbon

B. Hydrogen

C. Oxygen

D. Nitrogen

D. Nitrogen

78. Proteins may become denatured when

subjected to mechanical agitation, heat,

or extreme chemical treatment. How are

proteins affected by denaturation?

A. Alteration in primary structure

B. Alteration in secondary structure

C. Alteration in tertiary structure

D. Increase in solubility

C. Alteration in tertiary structure

79. What is the basis for the Kjeldahl

technique for the determination of serum

total protein?

A. Quantification of peptide bonds

B. Determination of the refractive index

of proteins

C. Ultraviolet light absorption by

aromatic rings at 280 nm

D. Quantification of the nitrogen content

of protein

D. Quantification of the nitrogen content

of protein

80. When quantifying serum total proteins,

upon what is the intensity of the color

produced in the biuret reaction dependent?

A. Molecular weight of the protein

B. Acidity of the medium

C. Number of peptide bonds

D. Nitrogen content of the protein

C. Number of peptide bonds

81. Which of the following reagents can be

used to measure protein in cerebrospinal

fluid?

A. Biuret

B. Coomassie brilliant blue

C. Ponceau S

D. Bromcresol green

B. Coomassie brilliant blue

82. Which disorder is not associated with an

elevated protein level in cerebrospinal

fluid?

A. Bacterial meningitis

B. Multiple sclerosis

C. Cerebral infarction

D. Hyperthyroidism

D. Hyperthyroidism

83. Which term describes a congenital

disorder that is characterized by a split in

the albumin band when serum is subjected

to electrophoresis?

A. Analbuminemia

B. Anodic albuminemia

C. Prealbuminemia

D. Bisalbuminemia

D. Bisalbuminemia

84. In what condition would an increased

level of serum albumin be expected?

A. Malnutrition

B. Acute inflammation

C. Dehydration

D. Renal disease

C. Dehydration

85. Identification of which of the following

is useful in early stages of glomerular

dysfunction?

A. Microalbuminuria

B. Ketonuria

C. Hematuria

D. Urinary light chains

A. Microalbuminuria

86. Which of the following is a low-weight

protein that is found on the cell surfaces of

nucleated cells?

A. C-reactive protein

B. p2-Microglobulin

C. Ceruloplasmin

D. G^-Macroglobulin

B. p2-Microglobulin

87. Which glycoprotein binds with hemoglobin

to facilitate the removal of hemoglobin by

the reticuloendothelial system?

A. Haptoglobin

B. Ceruloplasmin

C. cxpAntitrypsin

D. Fibrinogen

A. Haptoglobin

88. In a healthy individual, which protein

fraction has the greatest concentration in

serum?

A. Alphai-globulin

B. Beta-globulin

C. Gamma-globulin

D. Albumin

D. Albumin

89. Which of the following is an anionic dye that binds selectively with albumin?

A. Amido black

B. Ponceau S

C. Bromcresol green

D. Coomassie brilliant blue

C. Bromcresol green

90. Which total protein method requires

copper sulfate, potassium iodide in

sodium hydroxide, and potassium sodium

tartrate in its reagent system?

A. Kjeldahl

B. Biuret

C. Folin-Ciocalteu

D. Ultraviolet absorption

B. Biuret

91. Which of the following plasma proteins is

not manufactured by the liver?

A. Albumin

B. Haptoglobin

C. Fibrinogen

D. IgG

D. IgG

92. There are five immunoglobulin classes: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE. With which globulin fraction do these immunoglobulins migrate electrophoretically?

A. Alphapglobulins

B. Alpha2-globulins

C. Betapglobulins

D. Gamma-globulins

D. Gamma-globulins

93. Of the five immunoglobulin classes, IgG is

the most structurally simple, consisting of

how many light chains/heavy chains,

respectively?

A. 5/2

B. 1/1

C. 2/5

D. 2/2

D. 2/2

94. Which immunoglobulin class, characterized

by its possession of a secretory

component, is found in saliva, tears,

and body secretions?

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgG

D. IgM

A. IgA

95. Which immunoglobulin class is able to cross

the placenta from the mother to the fetus?

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. IgG

D. IgG

96. Which of the following is an acute-phase

reactant protein able to inhibit enzymatic

proteolysis and having the highest

concentration of any of the plasma

proteolytic inhibitors?

A. C-reactive protein

B. Haptoglobin

C. ct2-Macroglobulin

D. cq-Antitrypsin

D. cq-Antitrypsin

97. Which of the following is a copper

transport protein that migrates as an

alpha2-globulin?

A. Ceruloplasmin

B. Haptoglobin

C. Transferrin

D. Fibrinogen

A. Ceruloplasmin

98. Which of the following proteins is

normally produced by the fetus but is

found in increased amounts in the

amniotic fluid in cases of spina bifida?

A. «|-Antitrypsin

B. ai-Acid glycoprotein

C. aj-Fetoprotein

D. a2-Macroglobulin

C. aj-Fetoprotein

99. The physician is concerned that a pregnant

patient may be at risk for delivering prematurely.

What would be the best biochemical

marker to measure to assess the situation?

A. Inhibin A

B. ctpFetoprotein

C. Fetal fibronectin

D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

C. Fetal fibronectin

100. Bence Jones proteinuria is a condition

characterized by the urinary excretion of

what type of light chain?

A. Kappa light chains

B. Lambda light chains

C. Both kappa and lambda light chains

D. Either kappa or lambda light chains

D. Either kappa or lambda light chains