TEAS 7 Practice Test | Quizlet

Which of the following organelles is responsible for modifying, sorting and packaging proteins and lipids?

A. Golgi apparatus

B. Mitochondria

C. Ribosomes

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

A. Golgi apparatus

How do neurons communicate with each other?

A. Through electrical signals only

B. Through chemical signals only

C. Through electrical and chemical signals

D. Through mechanical signals only.

C. Through electrical and chemical signals

Which of the following structures in the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients?

A. Distal tubule

B. Proximal tubule

C. Glomerulus

D. Loop of Henle

B. Proximal tubule

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?

A. To connect muscle fibers to motor neurons

B. To bind acetylcholine to nAChRs

C. To depolarize the muscle cell membrane D.

D. To activate voltage-gated sodium channels on the muscle membrane .

A. To connect muscle fibers to motor neurons

During the menstrual cycle, which structure in the ovary produces progesterone to prepare the endometrium for potential implantation?

A. Corpus luteum.

B. Fimbriae

C. Follicle

D. Ovarian ligament.

A. Corpus luteum.

What is the normal flora?

A. A variety of microbial species found in certain areas of the human body.

B. A group of infectious parasites that cause diarrheal diseases.

C. The genetic material of bacteria housed within a true nucleus.

D. The protein coat surrounding the viral genome.

A. A variety of microbial species found in certain areas of the human body.

Which gland, located in the mediastinum, plays a key role in the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes?

A. Thymus

B. Parathyroid

C. Adrenal

D. Pituitary

A. Thymus

Which of the following statements about bacteria and archaea is true?

A. Bacteria have a true nucleus while archaea do not

B. Archaea reproduce by spores while some bacteria reproduce by fission.

C. Bacteria can perform photosynthesis while archaea cannot.

D. Archaeal and bacterial flagella are constructed similarly.

C. Bacteria can perform photosynthesis while archaea cannot.

A patient with chronic renal failure is undergoing hemodialysis. What process allows for the removal of waste products and excess fluid from the patient's bloodstream during hemodialysis?

A. Active transport.

B. Osmosis

C. Diffusion

D. Facilitated diffusion.

C. Diffusion

Which type of bond is responsible for the unique properties of water and plays a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins?

A. Hydrogen bonds.

B. Covalent bonds.

C. Ionic bonds.

D. Van der Waals forces.

A. Hydrogen bonds.

What is the relationship between atomic mass and mass number?

A. They are the same.

B. Atomic mass is always greater than mass number.

C. Atomic mass and mass number are not related.

D. Atomic mass is very close to mass number but with some deviation in the decimal places.

D. Atomic mass is very close to mass number but with some deviation in the decimal places.

In which type of tissue would you find a fibrous protein that provides strength and protection to the body, particularly in the skin, hair, and nails?

A. Keratin

B. Collagen

C. Elastin

D. Actin

A. Keratin

Which of the following is true regarding the role of oncogenes in cancer development?

A. Mutations in oncogenes always result in the inhibition of cell division.

B. Oncogenes are only found in human cells and not in any other organism.

C. Genes that regulate cell division are not found in any viruses.

D. Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

D. Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

Which subatomic particle contributes to the positive charge of an atom?

A. Proton

B. Neutron

C. Electron

D. Nucleon

A. Proton

A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for developing which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

A. Decrease in the concentration of calcium in the glomerulus.

B. Increase in the concentration of potassium in the blood.

C. Decrease in the concentration of sodium in the blood.

D. Increase in the concentration of magnesium in the blood.

B. Increase in the concentration of potassium in the blood.

Which of the following is a consequence of increased viscosity of a fluid?

A. Particles have a decrease in mobility.

B. The fluid will have a lower density.

C. The fluid will have a higher flow rate.

D. The fluid will have a higher pressure.

A. Particles have a decrease in mobility.

Which of the following represents the first line of defense to an intruding pathogen?

A. Adaptive immunity

B. Antibodies

C. Innate immunity

D. T cells .

C. Innate immunity

Which organ in the human body is responsible for the removal of damaged red blood cells and the production of certain types of white blood cells?

A. Spleen

B. Kidneys

C. Pancreas

D. Thyroid gland

A. Spleen

What is the largest vein in the human body that returns deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium of the heart?

A. Superior vena cava.

B. Inferior vena cava.

C. Pulmonary vein.

D. Renal vein.

A. Superior vena cava.

Which of the following allows a limited range of immune cells to detect and respond rapidly to a wide range of pathogens that share common structures?

A. Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

B. Cytokines

C. Chemokines

D. T cells

A. Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)

Which hormone is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, menstrual cycle, and widening of hips?

A. Progesterone

B. Testosterone

C. Estrogen

D. FSH

C. Estrogen

A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a medication that increases urine output to reduce fluid buildup.

Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of the prescribed medication?

A. Inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.

B. Blocks beta receptors.

C. Increases sodium and water reabsorption.

D. Enhances glomerular filtration rate.

D. Enhances glomerular filtration rate.

What is the hallmark of adaptive immunity?

A. Rapid recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection and inflammation

B. Antigen-independent defense mechanism

C. Immunologic memory

D. Non-specific host-defense mechanisms .

C. Immunologic memory

Which of the following hormones is responsible for regulating the body's metabolism and energy levels?

A. Estrogen

B. Progestin

C. Thyroxine

D. Androgen

C. Thyroxine

Which of the following refers to a condition in which a patient experiences difficulty breathing while lying down, but their breathing improves when they sit up or stand?

A. Orthopnea

B. Hypoxia

C. Tachypnea

D. Bradypnea

A. Orthopnea

What is the function of inflammatory cytokines released during the early response to bacterial infection?

A. Enhancing the phagocytosis of pathogens and disrupting the infection

B. Attacking invading pathogens

C. Initiating cell recruitment and local inflammation

D. Secreting antibodies to neutralize pathogens .

C. Initiating cell recruitment and local inflammation

How does the use of a catalyst affect the activation energy of a chemical reaction?

A. It increases the activation energy required for the reaction.

B. It decreases the activation energy required for the reaction.

C. It has no effect on the activation energy required for the reaction.

D. It increases the rate of reaction but has no effect on the activation energy.

B. It decreases the activation energy required for the reaction.

Which of the following is an example of a storage form of glucose in the human body?

A. Starch

B. Glycogen

C. Fructose

D. Cellulose

B. Glycogen

Which of the following is a mechanism that the body uses to regulate blood pH levels?

A. Increased respiration rate to remove excess CO2.

B. Decreased respiration rate to retain CO2.

C. Increased water intake to dilute the blood.

D. Decreased water intake to concentrate the blood.

A. Increased respiration rate to remove excess CO2.

What is the purpose of using PCR (polymerase chain reaction) in the laboratory?

A. To separate DNA fragments by size.

B. To amplify specific regions of DNA.

C. To sequence DNA fragments.

D. To analyze protein expression levels.

B. To amplify specific regions of DNA.

What is the relationship between viruses and their host cells during replication?

A. Viruses use the host’s replication processes to produce progeny virus particles.

B. Viruses divide inside the host cell to produce progeny virus particles.

C. Viruses have their own replication processes and do not need the host cell.

D. Viruses infect the host cell and destroy it completely.

A. Viruses use the host's replication processes to produce progeny virus particles.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been declared brain dead and is awaiting organ donation.

Which of the following interventions is most important to preserve the viability of the organs?

A. Administering antibiotics to prevent infection.

B. Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.

C. Providing emotional support to the family members.

D. Applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying.

B. Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered a traumatic brain injury after falling from a height.

The nurse knows that the severity of the injury depends on the speed at which the patient hit the ground.

Which of the following factors affects the terminal velocity of a falling object?

A. The shape and surface area of the object.

B. The mass and volume of the object.

C. The acceleration and momentum of the object.

D. The height and distance of the fall.

A. The shape and surface area of the object.

What is the organelle that encapsulates the contents of the cell and plays a vital role in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell?

A. Ribosome

B. Nucleus

C. Mitochondria

D. Plasma membrane.

D. Plasma membrane.

A nurse is reviewing the results of a patient's DNA sequencing test, which was performed to diagnose a genetic disorder.

The nurse notices that the patient has a mutation in one of the bases of the DNA. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of mutation?

A. Deletion

B. Insertion

C. Substitution

D. Inversion

C. Substitution

What is a control group used for in scientific studies?

A. To establish causality by isolating the effect of an independent variable.

B. To establish the effect of a dependent variable on an independent variable.

C. To control the impact of extraneous variables on the dependent variable.

D. To control the impact of extraneous variables on the independent variable.

A. To establish causality by isolating the effect of an independent variable.

A nurse is conducting a research study to compare the effects of two different pain medications on postoperative patients.

The nurse randomly assigns the patients to either receive medication A or medication B. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the study is valid and reliable?

A. Use a large sample size and a standardized procedure for administering the medications.

B. Use a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications.

C. Use a matched-pairs design and a crossover technique for switching the medications.

D. Use a convenience sample and a pretest-posttest design for measuring the pain levels.

B. Use a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications.

What is the name of the process in which an atom loses or gains electrons to form an ion?

A. Ionization

B. Oxidation

C. Reduction

D. Isotopic decay

A. Ionization

In a well-designed experiment, all variables apart from the treatment should be kept constant between what?

A. Control group and treatment group.

B. Independent variable and dependent variable.

C. Experimental group and non-experimental group.

D. High level and low level of the independent variable.

A. Control group and treatment group.

What is a primer in DNA sequencing?

A. A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase.

B. A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the primer and acts as a "starter" for the template.

C. A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase.

D. A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the polymerase and acts as a "starter" for the template.

C. A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase.

What are the four nucleotide bases found in DNA?

A. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine.

B. Adenine, Thymidine, Cytidine, Guanine.

C. Adenosine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanosine.

D. Adenosine, Thymidine, Cytidine, Guanosine.

A. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine.

Why is water sometimes called the "universal solvent"?

A. Because water dissolves all solutes equally well.

B. Because water is a nonpolar solvent.

C. Because water is good at dissolving ions and polar molecules.

D. Because water is poor at dissolving nonpolar molecules.

C. Because water is good at dissolving ions and polar molecules.

What is hydrogen bonding?

A. The attraction between the relatively positive areas of one molecule and the relatively negative areas of another molecule.

B. The repulsion between the positive and negative charges of two molecules.

C. The attraction between two nonpolar molecules.

D. The attraction between two ionic molecules.

A. The attraction between the relatively positive areas of one molecule and the relatively negative areas of another molecule.

Which cytotoxic lymphocyte granules contain serine proteases that induce apoptosis in target cells?

A. Perforins

B. Cytokines.

C. Granzymes.

D. Interferons.

C. Granzymes.

Which type of lymphocyte is capable of killing tumor cells and infected cells without prior sensitization?

A. Helper T cells.

B. B cells.

C. Natural killer cells.

D. Cytotoxic T cells .

C. Natural killer cells.

Which factor is primarily responsible for the movement of water across cell membranes in osmosis?

A. Hydrostatic pressure of the solution.

B. Concentration of solute particles in the solution.

C. Temperature of the solution.

D. Kinetic energy of liquid water molecules .

B. Concentration of solute particles in the solution.

Which process involves the fusion of male and female gametes resulting in the formation of a zygote?

A. Oogenesis.

B. Fertilization.

C. Meiosis.

D. Mitosis.

B. Fertilization.

Which of the following is a potential complication of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A. Conversion to carbon monoxide.

B. Formation of carboxyhemoglobin.

C. Increased production of red blood cells.

D. Decreased pulmonary function.

B. Formation of carboxyhemoglobin.