Penn Foster Pharmacology

define agonist

A drug with a high level of affinity and efficacy that binds to a receptor and casues a specific action.

define contraindiction

a reason not to use a drug in a particular situation, causes undesirable side effects

define efficacy

the degree to which a drug produces its desired response.

define over the counter drug

a drug that may be purchased without a prescription from a vet

define prescription drug

a drug that must be prescribed by a vet and taken while under the supervision of a vet

define receptor

a molecule located on a cell that binds with drugs or neurotransmitters to cause an effect

define therapeutic index

the relationship between a drug's ability to achieve the desired effect compared to its tendency to produce toxic effects. Expressed as a ration between the LD and the ED. LD/ED 50% of the time.

define withdrawal time

the amount of time that must elapse between the end of drug therapy and the elimination of that drug from the patients tissue or products.

define veterinarian client patient relationship

the relationship that must exist between the veterinarians, hris or her patient and the patient's owner before prescription drugs may be dispensed

List four sources of drugs used in veterinary medicine

animal products, plant products, minerals, and synthetic products

what are four components of a drug regimen

includes the dose, the route of administration, the frequency of administration, and the duration of administration

discuss the conditions that must be met before a valid veterinarian-client-patient relationship can be shown to exist.

1. the vet must assume responsibility for making clinical judgements in relation to the health of the animal. 2. the vet must have recently seen the animal and be acquainted with its care and 3. the vet must be available for follow up care of the animal.

discuss the responsibilities of a veterinary technician in the administration of drug orders.

carry out orders correctly, read the drug label 3x to ensure that the proper drug is being adminstered and take care to administer the correct dose by the correct route. be aware of posibble side effects and monitor patient in a responsible way.

Describe the sequense of events that a drug undergoes from administration to excretion.

a drug is first absorbed or directly placed into the bloodstream. In the blood, the drug may bind with a plasma protein or exist in the free state. The circulating blood distributes the drug to the capillary level, where the drug leaves the circulation and enters the interstitial fluid. The interstitial fluid bathes the cell or bind with surface receptors. The drug then exits the cell or its surface, moves back to interstitial fluid, reenters circulation and then is metabolized in the liver and sent to the kidneys for excretion.

List 11 possible routes for administering a drug and discuss the advatages and/or disadvantages of each.

1. oral route 2. SQ 3.IM 4. IV 5. IP 6. IA, intraarterial 7. IC, intracardiac 8. IM, intramedullary 9. Inhalation 10. topical 11. intradermal

List some of the factors that influence drug absorption

1. method of absorbtion, 2. the ph of the durg and its ionization status, 3. the absorptive surface area, 4. the blood supply to the area, 5. the solubility of the drug, 6. the dosage form, 7. the status of the gi tract 8 interactions with other drugs

Most biotransformation of drugs occurs in where?

liver

Must durg excretion occurs via?

kidneys

Drugs usually produce their effects by combining with specific cellular

receptors

The drug name that is chosen by the manufacturer and that is the exclusive property of that company is called

proprietary/trade

What are six items that must be on a drug label?

1.drug names 2.drug concentration 3.name and address of the manufacturerer 4.controlled substance status 5.manufacturer's control or lot number 6. expiration date

What are three government agencies that regulate the development, approval and use of animal health products?

FDA, EPA and USDA

Why do many veterinary clinics dispense rather than prescribe most of the drugs that they use?

profit

Describe the marketing of animal health products

veterinary pharmaceuticals may be purchased directly from the manufacturer, from distributors, or from generic mail order companies. In some instances drugs may be sold under one label to gradute veterinarians and under another as an over the counter product

All FDA approved veterinary drugs are listed in the publication titled

The Green Book

What is the purpose of FARAD?

provides resources concerning the avoidance of drug residues in animals

Extralabel veterinary drug use was made legal under prescribed circumstances by what act of Congress?

AMDUCA Animal medicinal drug use clarification act

Define compounding

Compounding refers tot he diluting or combining of existing drugs

What are the potential danges of residues in animal products

Drug residues in animal products may cause allergic reations or neoplasia in people and they may cause the development of antibiotic resistant strains of bacteria

List three class of drug interactions.

pharmacodynamic, pharmacokinetic and pharmaceutic

Drug interaction can be anticipated when giving two drugs both metabilized by the?

Liver

Define ethical product

one sold only through veterinarians as a policy of the manufacturer rather than by the FDA requirement

Once a drug has been biotransformed it is called a:

metabolite

Pharmacodynamics

the action or effect on one drug is altered by another (antagonistic, additive, and synergistic)

pharmacokinetic

plasma or tissue levels of the durg are altered by the presense of another (drug interaction)

pharmaceutic

physical or chemical reactions take place as a result of mixing drugs in a syringe or other container.

bioavailability

the degree to which a drug is absorbed and reaches the general circulation

partition coefficient

the degree of lipid solubility of a drug. high lipid partition coefficient indicated enhanced drug absorption

What are the four chemical reactions induced by microsomal enzymes in the liver to biotransform drugs

1. oxidation (loss of e-) 2. reduction (gain of e-) 3. hydrolysis (splitting of the drug molecule with the addition of a water molecule 4. Conjugation (the addition of glucuronic acid to the drug

The kidneys excrete drugs by two principle mechanisms

1. glomerular filtration 2. tubular secretion

2.1. Name four common drug preparations

oral, parenteral, topical, inhalation

2.2. Boluses are used in the treatment of ________animals and are adminstered with a _______

large, balling gun

2.3.Name two types of parenteral injection forms

injections, implants

2.4. Vials may be either ______dose or ______dose

single, multi

2.5. All used needles should be discarded in a _________

sharps container

2.6. Name the five rights of drug administration.

1. right patient 2. right drug 3. right dose 4. right route 5. right time and frequency

2.7. Oral drugs should never be administered in animals that are __________

vomiting

2.8. IV administration of drugs allows the most __________and effective drug administration

rapid

2.9. An indwelling catheter should be replaced with a new one every __________hours

72

2.10. A simplex (gravity set) IV system is used to administer fluids to ________ animals

large

2.11. Name six items that should be recorded in the controlled substance log

1. patient name 2. owner name 3. name of person administering 4. amount dispensed 5. date

2.12. Why should drugs give by injection not be stored in syringes for any length of time before administration?

drug interaction with plastic, it may absorb the drug, making it less potent

2.13. List four types of syring tips

1. slip tip 2. luer lock 3. catheter tip 4. eccentric

2.14. A tuberculin syringe holds up to _________ ml of medication

1 ml

2.15. What type of syringe is divided into units rather than milliliters?

insulin U40

4.1.Define the difference between agonist and an opiod antagonist.

an agonist is a drug that combines with a receptor to bring about an action, whereas an antagonist combines with a receptor to block that action.

4.2.define neurotransmitter

a chemical substance released by a nerve ending at the synapse. It acts on the adjacent neuron to stimulate, inhibit, or change its activity.

The area of the brain that serves to relay information 4.3.from the spinal cord and brain stem to the interpretation center in the cerebrum is the...

thalamus

4.4.Most CNS drugs act by _______ or ________ the effects of neurotransmitters

interupting the generation or conduction of nerve impulses, interferring with

4.5.What are the primary neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptors?

epinephrine and norepinephrine

4.6. List four primary ways in which drugs affect the ANS

1. mimicking neurotransmitters 2. interfering with neurotransmitter release 3. blocking the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors 4. interfering with the breakdown of neurotransmitters

4.7. List five indications for the use of cholinergic agents.

1. control vomiting 2. treat urinary retention 3. stimulate gi activity 4. treat glaucoma 5. diagnose myasthenia gravis

4.8. Atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate and aminopentamide are examples of what specific drug class?

cholingergic blocking agents - anticholingergic

4.9. What category of drug is used to treat cardiac arrest and anaphylactic shock?

adrenergic - sympathomimetic

4.10. Propranolol is an example of waht category of drug?

beta blocker

4.11. What are some adverse side effects of xylazine, and what drug may be used to antagonize it effects?

Bradycardia and hypotension may be antagonized by using atropine; respiratory depression or excessive CNS depression may be antagonized by using yohimbine.

4.12.Why would you be concerned about using a thiobarbiturate to induce anesthesia in a very thin dog?

Thiobarbiturates are very soluble in fat, so thin animals don't absorb as much and more remains in the bloodstream and may cause excessive depression of the CNS.

4.13. What are some of the characteristics of a cat anesthetized with ketamine?

Analgesia, increased muscle tone, maintenance of pharyngeal/laryngeal reflexes, muscle tremors, and loss of the blink reflex.

4.14. List some of the signs of a narcotic overdose.

respiratory depression, cardiac depression, agitation, excitement, or seizures

4.15. List two narcotic antagonists.

naloxone and nalorphine

4.16. why should glyceryl guaiacolate not be mixed until just before use?

tendancy to precipitate out of soln

4.17.What drug would you administer to a puppy delivered via c-section that was not breathing?

doxapram may be administered on or under the tongue, into the umbilical vein or IM injection.

4.18. Why are euthanasia solutions containing only pentobarbital classified as Class II whereas those containing pentobarbital and other substances are Class III controlled substances

some pentobarbital euthanasia agents have a red dye added to distinguish them from pentobarbital agents used for anesthesia. less potential for abuse because easily identified.

4.19. All psychotherapy drugs are thought to produce their effects by altering _________ in the brain.

neurotransmitter

4.20. Dissociative agents such as ketamine and tiletamine may cause ______ at the injection site.

burning

4.21. A hypnotic (anesthetic) known for its very short duration and white color is_________

propofol

4.22. An inhibitory neurotransmitter widely distributed in the brain is

GABA

4.23. a benzodiazepine used as an antianxiety medication and as an appetite stimulant in cats is ____________

diazepam

4.24. An example of a tricyclic antidepressant used in veterinary medicine for seperation anxiety in dogs is

Clomicalm

4.25. _______________ is used to treat old dog dementia

Anipryl

What do cholingergic agents do?

1. diagnose myasthenia gravis 2. reduce intraocular pressure of glaucoma. 3. stimulate GI motility 4. Treat urinary retention 5. Control vomiting 6. antidote for neuromuscular blockers

What are the direct acting cholinergics

1. acetycholine 2. carbamylcholine 3. bethanechol 4. Pilocarpine 5. Metoclopramide

Acetylcholine

seldom used since it is broken down by acetylcholinesterase

Carbamylcholine

treat atony of the GI tract and to stimulate uterine contractions in swine

Bethanechol (Urecholine)

treat GI and urinary tract atony

Pilocarpine

direct acting cholingergic. reduces intraocular pressure associated with glaucoma.

Metoclopramide

direct acting cholingeric. controls vomiting and to promote gastric tract emptying.

what are the indirect-acting (anticholinesterase) agents

1. Edrophonium (Tensilon) 2. Neostigmine (Prostigmine, Stiglyn) 3. Physostigmine (Antilirium, Eserine) 4. Organophosphate compounds5. Demecarium (Humorsol) 6. Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

Edrophonium

Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent. used to diagnose myasthenia gravis

Neostigmine

Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent.treat urine retention and GI atony, antidote to neuromuscular blocking agents

Physostigmine

Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent.treat urine retention and GI atony, antidote to neuromuscular blocking agents.

Organophosphate compounds

Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent.commonly used as insecticide dips and can result in toxicity.

Demecarium

Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent. preventive mangement of glaucoma.

Pyridostigmine

Indirect-Acting Cholinergic (Anticholinesterase)Agent. treatment of myasthenia gravis.

What are the adverse side effects of cholinergic agents?

bradycardia, hypotension, heart block, lacrimation, diarrhea, vomiting, increased intestinal activity, intestinal rupture, increased bronchial secretions.

What are Anticholinergic Agents?

drugs that block the action of acetycholine at muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system.

What are the clinical uses of anticholinergic agents?

1. Treatment of diarrhea and vomiting by decreasing GI motility. 2. preanesthetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia. 3. dilate pupils 4. relieve ciliary spasm of the eye 5. treat sinus bradycardia

Atropine

anticholinergic. preanethetic to dry secretions and prevent bradycardia, antidote to organophosphate poisoning, dilate pupils, slow hypermotile gut

Scopolamine

anticholinergic. antidiarrheal medication

Methscopolamine

anticholinergic. control diarrhea.