Sheppard Air IFR & Navigation

During your preflight planning for an IFR flight in a helicopter, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,

then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the

minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.

Per 14 CFR 91.175, if the RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, except for Category I| or Category Ill, you must

convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility.

What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?

The first airport of intended landing.

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?

90° and 270°

A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?

3 NM.

While in IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or deceleration forces as a sensation of

climbing or descending

If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?

90 seconds

The turn coordinator indicates

rate of roll and rate of turn.

If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?

1 minute

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

descent

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?

The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.

Prior to takeoff, the attitude indicator is considered reliable and properly checked when

the horizon bar remains in the horizontal position and does not tip more than 5° during taxi.

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

Instrument cross-check

Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?

Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?

Indirect indication of the bank attitude.

While recovering from an unusual flight attitude with an inoperative attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the

airspeed indicator and altimeter stabilize.

If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?

Airspeed and altimeter.

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

(Refer to figure 145.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight using ailerons and rudder.

(Refer to figure 146. The DG shows a right turn.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.

Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator, apply power, and turn on pitot heat to unblock.

(Refer to figure 147.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?

Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.

(Refer to figure 149.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.

Straight-and-level flight.

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?

The airplane is flying away from the radial.

(Refer to figure 95.) To center the No. 1 NAV CDI with a TO indication, you should turn the OBS to

165°

(Refer to figure 95.) Using the Nav 2 CDI, which radial is your aircraft located on?

174°

(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?

9 and 6.

(Refer to figure 109.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?

northeast

Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.

With regard to slant range error, approximately how far from the DME facility can you be to consider the DME reading usable?

One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.

(Refer to figures 139 and 140.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?

710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.

(Refer to figures 139 and 141.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300 foot point from the runway is indicated?

21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

(Refer to figures 139 and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?

1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope.

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

At standard temperature.

(Refer to figure 210.) When on the RWY 6 approach procedure, when approaching the threshold or on the missed approach, you should expect to see

White light flashing all dots.

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?

1.0

Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during FR operations as

an aid to situational awareness.

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches without

WAAS input, any required alternate airport must have

an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.

You can expect ATC to assign these procedures without a specific pilot request?

DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

Destination plus specific fix and altitude.

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

(Refer to figure 87.) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended?

direct

(Refer to figures 87 and 88.) You are traveling westbound on V222, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FALSE intersection. Which VOR would you use?

When the CDI on VOR 2 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FALSE.

(Refer to figure 112, #1.) While on a heading of 350° flying direct to the 15 DME fix from the ABC VORTAC, ATC issues you this clearance. 'HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX, LEFT TURNS, FIVE MILE LEGS, ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE AT 2215Z''

What is the recommended entry?

Direct entry.

(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:

"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..."

What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

direct

(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:

"...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..."

What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Direct only

(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:

"...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..."

What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

Teardrop only

(Refer to figure 115, #1.) You receive this ATC clearance:

"HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS..." You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding entry procedure is recommended?

direct

(Refer to figure 116, #2.) ATC has issued the following holding instructions: "...hold west of the 15 DME fix on the 270° radial from the XYZ VOR, left turns..." If a pilot is flying directly to the VOR on a 330° heading, what is the recommended entry procedure?

Teardrop entry.

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to

make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than

200 knots IAS

Which is true regarding STAR's?

STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.

While briefing the assigned approach, you review the missed approach procedure. If you execute the missed approach before reaching DA or MDA, you must

fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns.

Aircraft approach categories are based on

1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used

in lieu of conducting a SIAP.

You received the following clearance: "CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY

07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT." When does ATC expect you to commence the side step maneuver?

As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.

Landing on a narrow runway may cause you to perceive the aircraft is

higher than actual altitude.

You break out of the clouds on an instrument approach. A narrower than usual runway will have the same appearance as

An upsloping runway

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

Coriolis illusion

An abrupt transition from a climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of

tumbling backward

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of

being in a noseup attitude.

The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions

must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.

A pilot is subject to spatial disorientation

when you use your senses to determine your flight attitude.

(Refer to figure 162.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?

0600 2330

(Refer to figure 184.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the Tower for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?

0600 to 2200.

(Refer to figures 71 and 71A.) You are traveling northbound on

V213, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FLOSI.

Which VOR would you use?

When the CDI on VOR 1 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FLOSI.

(Refer to figure 211.) Where does the STAKK THREE departure procedure end?

STAKK intersection.

(Refer to figures 216 and 216A.) After departing from RWY 16L at

RNO, you discover you are unable to contact Reno Departure Control. What procedure should you follow?

Continue on assigned heading of 164° until passing 10,000

MSL, then turn left direct FIMG VORTAC, then via assigned route.

(Refer to figures 174 and 175.) At which point does the Glen Rose

Nine Arrival begin?

JEN VORTAC.

(Refer to figures 208 and 209.) At which location or condition does the STELA.STELA1 arrival begin?

CANAN intersection.

(Refer to figure 210.) When should you execute the published missed approach for an S-ILS RWY 6 approach at BDL?

When reaching 373 feet MSL indicated altitude.

(Refer to figure 221.) The final approach fix for the ILS RWY 24R is located at glide slope intercept at

JETSA

(Refer to figure 238.) You are cleared for the LHQ RNAV (GPS) RWY

28 approach over APE VORTAC. ATC will expect you to

proceed straight in from FAIRF, descend after FAIRF.

(Refer to figure 240.) You are cruising at 12,000 feet and are cleared for the VOR/DME RWY 36 approach at COPUK. Once established on the PUC arc, you can descend

at COPUK, from 8,900 at PUKNE, and from 7,500 at WELEN.

(Refer to figure 242.) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Bill and Hillary Clinton National/Adams Field (LIT)?

Any IFR approved GPS receiver.

(Refer to figure 242.) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at Bill and Hillary Clinton National/Adams Field (LIT)?

Any IFR approved GPS receiver.

(Refer to figure 244.) What are the course reversal restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?

Remain within 10 NM of EXUNE INT and on the south side of the approach course.

(Refer to figure 244.) At what minimum altitude should you cross

RAMKE intersection during the S-LDA RWY 6 approach at ROA?

4,300 MSL.

(Refer to figures 140, 141, and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are low and to the left of the ILS course?

Figure 142.

(Refer to figures 140, 141, and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the right of the ILS course?

Figure 140.

What recent instrument flight experience requirements must be met before you may act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?

A minimum of six instrument approaches in an airplane, or an approved flight simulator (airplane) or flight training device, within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of the flight.

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight.

In addition, the pilot must

be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

Altimeter and transponder within 24 calendar months, and VOR within 30 days.

(Refer to figures 140, 141, and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope indicates you are high and to the left of the ILS course?

Figure 141.

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower-than-actual altitude?

Air temperature warmer than standard.

A hazardous situation can occur when true altitude is lower than indicated altitude. This can occur when your altimeter is set to 29.92"

in colder than standard air temperature.

Prior to beginning a GPS approach, the pilot must verify the validity of the database. One method of doing this is to

determine that the waypoints are logically located and in correct order as per the procedure chart.

The Glidepath Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between

Decision Altitude and the Runway Threshold.

While on an IFR flight plan at 7,000 feet, you encounter structural icing. You know that clear conditions are a few hundred feet above you. You contact ATC and request a climb to 9,000 feet, but they are unable to give it to you. You then request a "VFR-on-top" clearance to 7,500 feet which is granted. When you accept this Clearance, your IFR clearance is

still in effect

(Refer to Figure 184.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the Tower for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is not in effect?

0600 to 2200.

When using a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.

(Refer to figure 162.) You are on a visual approach to Rwy 16R at Eugene Mahlon Sweet Field at night, and you do not see the centerline lights. You are likely

lined up on the wrong runway.

The standard IFR ATC climb gradient is

200 feet per NM

(Refer to Figure 232.) During the LOC RWY 35 missed approach at Duncan/Halliburton Field (DUC), what would be the appropriate entry for the holding?

parallel

(Refer to Figures 163 and 164.) Your departure clearance begins with the GNATS SIX DEPARTURE, MOURN transition. Before takeoff, your only DME malfunctions. You know that

you can no longer accept takeoff clearance with your assigned departure.

(Refer to Figure 243.) The Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) and reference point for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 6 approach at Roanoke

Regional are

5,700 MSL, CAKIX.

(Refer to figure 227.) What altitude should your altimeter indicate if you are on the ILS glide slope when you cross the outer marker?

7,977 feet MSL.

(Refer to figure 187.) When the MALSR are NOTAM'd out of service, what are the minimums for a category B airplane LPV approach?

4500 RVR.

In order to fly the LPV minima line on an RNAV GPS approach,

there must be a statement in the flight manual that the aircraft equipment has been demonstrated to support LPV minimums and is

WAAS equipped in accordance with approved standards.