Manor Compre - Module 2

Characterized by accumulation of fats in the brain, spleen, liver, kidneys, lungs, and bone marrow. People with this disease suffer from brain damage, enlarged spleen and liver, liver malfunctions, bone lesions, anemia, and yellow spots in the eyes caused by deficiency in glucosylceramidase.

a.Tay Sach's Disease

b.Sandhoff's Disease

c.Gaucher's Disease

d.Fabry's Disease

C

This is a group of autosomal recessive disorders caused by an accumulation of fat and cholesterol in cells of the liver, spleen, bone marrow, lungs, and, in some instances, brain. A characteristic cherry-red halo that can be seen by a physician using a special tool develops around the center of the retina in 50 percent of affected individuals

a.Krabbe's Disease

b.Gaucher's Disease

c.Fabry's Disease

d.Niemann Pick Disease

D

It is known as the only X linked lipid storage disease and is also known as alpha-galactosidase A deficiency. Patients with this lipid storage disorder start to suffer symptoms such as burning pain in the arms and legs, during childhood or adolescence.

a.Sandhoff's Disease

b.Fabry's Disease

c.Gaucher's Disease

d.Niemann Pick Disease

B

This is a lipid storage disorder that is fairly common to Eastern European and Ashkenazi Jewish population. Affected infants appear normal at the first stages of life up until 6th month where symptoms caused by deficiency in Hexosaminidase A occurs

a.Krabbe's Disease

b.Fabry's Disease

c.Sandhoff's Disease

d.Tay Sach's Disease

D

This is a severe form of lipid storage disorder which starts its onset at 6 months, however, this is not limited to any ethnic group. Symptoms of this disease brought about by deficiency in Hexosaminidase A and B include CNS deterioration, muscle weakness and early onset blindness.

a.Sandhoff's Disease

b.Tay Sach's Disease

c.Gaucher's Disease

d.Niemann Pick Disease

A

Lipid storage disorder which is also known as globoid cell leukodystrophy is due to a deficiency in galactosylceramidase which causes severe mental and motor skill deterioration. Onset of this disease is commonly before 6 months but may still during childhood and adolescence

a.Tay Sach's Disease

b.Fabry's Disease

c.Krabbe's Disease

d.Sandhoff's Disease

C

Pyrimidine bases

a.

Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil

b.

Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine

c.

Uracil, Guanine, Thymine

d.

Cytosine, Adenine, Guanine

A

Purine bases

a.Cytosine, Adenine

b.Uracil, Cytosine

c.Guanine, Thymine

d.Adenine, Guanine

D

Which of the following is true regarding topoisomerase I

I. Topoisomerase I reversibly cuts one strand of DNA

II. Topoisomerase I both have nuclease and ligase activity

III. Topoisomerase I requires ATP to be able to reseal the broken strands

IV. Topoisomerase I relieves positive supercoils in E. coli while it relieves both positive and negative supercoils in eukaryotic DNA

a.No statement is correct

b.1 of the statements is correct

c.2 of the statements are correct

d.3 of the statements are correct

e.All of the statements are correct

C

Which of the following is true regarding topoisomerase II

I. Relieving of supercoils using Topoisomerase II is not an ATP requiring process.

II. Topoisomerase II causes a transient break in both strands.

III. Topoisomerase II cannot relieve negative supercoils.

IV. Topoisomerase II in bacteria and plants can introduce negative supercoils.

a.No statement is correct

b.1 of the statements is correct

c.2 of the statements are correct

d.3 of the statements are correct

e.All of the statements are correct

C

Initiates leading strand synthesis.

a.Pol-Alpha

b.Pol-Beta

c.Pol-Gamma

d.Pol-Delta

e.Pol-Epsilon

D

Involved in repair of broken parts of the leading strand

a.Pol-Alpha

b.Pol-Beta

c.Pol-Gamma

d.Pol-Delta

e.Pol-Epsilon

B

Responsible for the replication of mitochondrial DNA

a.Pol-Alpha

b.Pol-Beta

c.Pol-Gamma

d.Pol-Delta

e.Pol-Epsilon

C

Responsible for the elongation of the Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand

a.Pol-Alpha

b.Pol-Beta

c.Pol-Gamma

d.Pol-Delta

e.Pol-Epsilon

A

Which of the following features are unique to the strand being synthesized in the direction away from the origin of replication?

a.Elongation without any pause or breaks

b.Presence of Okazaki fragments

c.Use of multiple primers

d.Two of the choices

e.All of the choices

A

The following is/are true regarding left handed DNA structure EXCEPT:I. It is also called B DNAII. Left handed DNA has a zigzag phosphate backbone as compared to right handed DNA which has smooth phosphate backbone.III. Left handed DNA structure has a distinct major and minor groove.IV. Left handed DNA is wider (20 A) than right handed DNA (18 A)

a.I, II, IV

b.II, IV

c.I, III

d.I, III, IV

D

Geraniol's origin from the MVA pathway

a.Geranyl pyrophosphate

b.Farnesyl pyrophosphate

c.Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate

d.Squalene

A

Paclitaxel's origin from the MVA pathway

a.Geranyl pyrophosphate

b.Farnesyl pyrophosphate

c.Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate

d.Squalene

C

Sterols' origin from the MVA pathway

a.Geranyl pyrophosphate

b.Farnesyl pyrophosphate

c.Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate

d.Squalene

D

Artemisinin's origin from the MVA pathway

a.Geranyl pyrophos

b.Farnesyl pyrophosphate

c.Geranylgeranyl pyrophosphate

d.Squalene

B

Which of the following pathways are performed in two compartments of the cell?

A.Urea cycle

B.Heme synthesis

C.Glycolysis

D.Two of the above

E.All of the above

D

Mammals solve the problem of ammonia toxicity by converting the said substance to urea, a soluble nitrogenous compound which is less toxic than ammonia. The following is/are true regarding urea cycle: I. The first phase of urea cycle occurs in the cytosol while the second phase proceeds in the mitochondria II. Urea cycle is an ATP requiring process. III. Formation of Carbamoyl phosphate and citrulline occurs in the cytosol IV. One mole of ATP is needed to produce one mole of carbamoyl phosphate

a.I only

b.I and III

c.II only

d.II and IV

C

Uses copper sulfate as reagent. Samples containing peptide linkages show rose pink to violet coloration when subjected to this test

a.Millon

b.Hopkin's Cole

c.Biuret

d.Xanthoproteic

C

Used specifically to detect Tryptophan

a.Xanthoproteic

b.Nitroprusside

c.Hopkin's Cole

d.Sakaguchi

C

Used in detecting aromatic amino acids and uses nitric acid

a.Xanthoproteic

b.Nitroprusside

c.Pauly

d.Hopkin's Cole

A

Alpha-glucose and Beta Glucose

a.

Epimers

b.

Anomers

c.

Diastereomers

d.

Enantiomers

B

D-fructose and L-fructose

a.

Epimers

b.

Anomers

c.

Diastereomers

d.

Enantiomers

D

D-glucose and D-mannose

a.

Epimers

b.

Anomers

c.

Diastereomers

d.

Enantiomers

A

D-glucose and D-talose

a.

Epimers

b.

Anomers

c.

Diastereomers

d.

Enantiomers

C

Phenolic ether volatile oilsI. ThymeII. BasilIII. OreganoIV. Fennel

a.I, II

b.II, III

c.I, III

d.II, IV

D

Carvone

a.Spearmint

b.Coriander

c.Caraway

d.Two of the above

D

Neroli Oil

a.Ketone

b.Hydrocarbon

c.Alcohol

d.Oxide

C

Orange Oil

a.Aldehyde

b.Oxide

c.Ester

d.Ketone

A

Cajuput Oil

a.Alcohol

b.Phenol

c.Phenolic ether

d.Oxide

D

Buchu Oil

a.Ester

b.Ketone

c.Hydrocarbon

d.Alcohol

B

Absinthe Oil

a.Aldehyde

b.Ester

c.Ketone

d.Phenol

C

Ephedrine

a.Indole

b.Imidazole

c.Steroidal

d.Alkaloidal Amines

D

Ergotamine

a.Isoquinoline

b.Indole

c.Imidazole

d.Steroidal

B

Tubocurarine

a.Pyridine-Piperidine

b.Isoquinoline

c.Tropane

d.Quinoline

B

Quinine

a.Quinoline

b.Imidazole

c.Indole

d.Steroidal

A

Cocaine

a.Pyridine-Piperidine

b.Isoquinoline

c.Tropane

d.Quinoline

C

This compound serves as the branching point in the shikimic acid pathway

a.Shikimic acid

b.Chorismic acid

c.Anthranillic acid

d.Prephenic acid

B

This compound gives rise to the indole derivatives

a.Shikimic acid

b.Chorismic acid

c.Anthranillic acid

d.Prephenic acid

C

This compound is the precursor compound for aromatic amino acids

a.Shikimic acid

b.Chorismic acid

c.Anthranillic acid

d.Prephenic acid

D

Which of the following is most likely to be derived from the Shikimic Acid Pathway?

a.Chitin

b.Chloramphenicol

c.Vanillin

d.Progesterone

C

Which of the following plants produce a blue colored oil?

a.Achillea millefolium

b.Humulus lupulus

c.Juniperus communis

d.Syzigium aromaticum

A

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Linseed Oil

a.Olea europea

b.Linum usitatissimum

c.Gossypium hirsutum

d.Sesamum indicum

B

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Evening Primrose Oil

a.Catharanthus tinctoria

b.Oenothera biennis

c.Helianthus annus

d.Brassica napus

B

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Palm Kernel Oil

a.Cocos nucifera

b.Elaeis guineensis

c.Lunaria annua

d.Zea mays

B

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Starflower Oil

a.Helianthus annus

b.Catharanthus tinctoria

c.Boragio officinalis

d.Oenothera biennis

C

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Honesty Oil

a.Lunaria annua

b.Oenothera biennis

c.Linum usitatissimu

d.Elaeis guineensis

A

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Tea Tree Oil

a.Melaleuca alternifolia

b.Camella sinensis

c.Chamamaelum nobile

d.Cymbopogon nardus

A

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Dill Oil

a.Pinus mugo

b.Salvia officinalis

c.Pinus palustris

d.Anethum graveolens

D

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Dwarf mountain pine oil

a.Pinus mugo

b.Melaleuca alternifolia

c.Citrus aurantium

d.Cinnamomum camphora

A

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Sandalwood Oil

a.Mentha spicata

b.Santalum album

c.Rosmarinus officinalis

d.Salvia officinalis

B

Identify the corresponding botanical origin of Sage Oil

a.Citrus sinensis

b.Thymus vulgaris

c.Salvia officinalis

d.Juniperus communis

C

These consist of N-acetylglucosamine and galactose disaccharide units. It is the most heterogeneous GAGS because of additional monosaccharides.

a.Keratan Sulfate

b.Hyaluronic Acid

c.Dermatan Sulfate

d.Heparin

A

These are the most abundant glycosaminoglycans in the body and is usually found in cartilage, tendons, ligaments and aorta. In the cartilage they bind collagen and hold fibers in a tight, strong network

a.Chondroitin Sulfate

b.Keratan Sulfate

c.Hyaluronic Acid

d.Dermatan Sulfate

A

Its disaccharide unit consist of glucosamine with a mix of glucuronic and iduronic acid. Most residues are bound in sulfamide linkages. It is the only intracellular GAG and is popularly known in medicine to has a role in maintaining blood fluidity.

a.Hyaluronic Acid

b.Dermatan Sulfate

c.Heparin

d.Heparan Sulfate

C

These consist of N-acetylgalactosamine and L-iduronic acid disaccharide units. They are usually found in the skin, blood vessels and heart valves, maintaining integrity over their protective layers.

a.Keratan Sulfate

b.Hyaluronic Acid

c.Dermatan Sulfate

d.Heparin

C

It is highly similar to heparin except that some glucosamines are acetylated and have a fewer sulfate group. It is found in the basement membrane as an ubiquitous component of cell surfaces

a.Hyaluronic Acid

b.Chondroitin Sulfate

c.Dermatan Sulfate

d.Heparan Sulfate

D

This polysaccharide is the most branched among the options, and therefore has potentially faster capability to release glucose when the animal in question is in great need for energy.

a.Starch

b.Cellulose

c.Glycogen

d.Inulin

C, D

It is an X-linked deficiency with a wide range of severity. No corneal clouding is observed but physical deformity and retardation are mild to severe. It is caused by a deficiency in iduronate sulfatase.

a.Sly syndrome

b.Hurler syndrome

c.Sanfilippo syndrome

d.Hunter syndrome

D

This is most severe mucopolysaccharidosis, affecting the enzyme alpha-L iduronidase. Symptoms include corneal clouding, mental retardation, dwarfing. Deposition in coronary artery leads to ischemia and early death. It is caused by a deficiency in a-L-iduronidase.

a.Hunter syndrome

b.Sanfilippo syndrome

c.Hurler syndrome

d.Sly syndrome

C

Called MPS type III, is known to have 4 subtypes. Symptoms include severe nervous system disorders and mental retardation.

a.Sanfilippo syndrome

b.Sly syndrome

c.Hunter syndrome

d.Hurler syndrome

A

This is caused by a deficiency in beta-glucuronidase. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, skeletal deformity, short stature, corneal clouding and mental deficiency.

a.Sanfilippo syndrome

b.Hunter syndrome

c.Sly syndrome

d.Hurler syndrome

C

Arrange the following steps within the cell cycle in chronological order:

I. The nucleus reforms and the cytoplasm divides.

II. The kinetochore of dyad chromosomes become attached to mitotic spindles.

III. Cohesin proteins break down and the sister chromatids separate.

IV. Sister chromatids then line up at the metaphase plate

a.III, II, IV, I

b.II, IV, III, I

c.II, I, III, IV

d.III, I, IV, II

B

The mitotic spindles arise from which cell structure?

a.Centromere

b.Centrosome

c.Kinetochore

d.Cleavage furrow

B

The fusing of Golgi vesicles at the metaphase plate of dividing plant cells forms what structure?

a.cell plate

b.cleavage furrow

c.mitotic spindle

d.actin ring

A

Unpacking of chromosomes and the formation of a new nuclear envelope is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?

a.Prometaphase

b.Metaphase

c.Anaphase

d.Telophase

D

Separation of the sister chromatids is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?

a.Prometaphase

b.Metaphase

c.Anaphase

d.Telophase

C

Arrange the following steps in binary fission by chronological order:

Prokaryotic organisms reproduce asexually by binary fission, a process that produces identical offspring. Binary fission can be described as a series of steps, although it is actually a continuous process. The following are steps in bacterial binary fission.

I. The cell begins to elongate and the FtsZ proteins migrate towards the midpoint of the cell

II. Replication of the circular prokaryotic chromosome begins at the origin of replication and continues in both directions at once.

III. The FtsZ ring transforms into a septum that completely divides the cell into two. Plasma membrane and cell wall materials accumulate in that division.

IV. After the septum is complete, the cell pinches in two, forming two daughter cells. FtsZ is dispersed throughout the cytoplasm of the new cells.

V. FtsZ proteins migrate to the midpoint between chromosomes and form a ring, while the continue to move away to the sides.

a.II, I, V, III, IV

b.III, II, I, IV, V

c.II, I, III, V, IV

d.IV, V, III, II, I

A

Which part of the cell is targeted by drugs like griseofulvin, colchicine, vincristine, and paclitaxel?

a.Lysosomal enzymes

b.Small ribosomal subunits

c.Inner mitochondrial membrane

d.Spindle fibers

D

Which feature in the central dogma is critical to RNA synthesis from a DNA template strand?

a.Shine-Dalgarno sequence

b.Promoter regions

c.Helicase

d.7-methylguanosine molecules

B

Which of the following post-transcriptional modifications is responsible for keeping only the sequence of the mRNA needed for protein synthesis?

a.Elongation

b.Polyadenylation

c.Unwinding

d.Splicing

e.Capping

D

Glycosylating newly synthesized proteins can serve a variety of functions, including the following except one. Which is the wrong statement?

a.Target them to specific organelles like the cell membrane

b.Give rise to different blood types such as type A, B, and AB

c.Grant them the capability to provide energy upon degradation

d.Confer some peptides their native conformation by giving interactions for folding

C

Which among the following choices is an/are anabolic process(es)?

I. Glycogenesis

II. Glycogenolysis

III. Fermentation

IV. Glycolysis

a.II and IV

b.I and III

c.I only

d.III only

C

In at least which level of organization should there be presence of disulfide linkages and ionic interactions?

a.Primary

b.Secondary

c.Tertiary

d.Quaternary

C

Which of the following processes reduces any protein level to the primary structure without breaking it to individual amino acids?

a.Hydrolysis

b.Denaturation

c.Renaturation

d.Melting

D

Which of the following amino acids does NOT give rise to an autacoid or neurotransmitter?

a.Proline

b.Glutamate

c.Serine

d.Tryptophan

A

Cystinuria is a hereditary, heterogeneous disorder affecting the proximal tubule's cystine and dibasic amino acid transporter. The following amino acids are not reabsorbed except

a.Ornithine

b.Arginine

c.Aspartic acid

d.Lysine

C

Arrange the following in chronological order

I. Bile acids aid in digestion and absorption of dietary lipids by emulsification.

II. Short and medium chain fatty acids are absorbed via stomach wall and enter the portal vein.

III. Gastric lipase degrade TAG molecules.

IV. Longer chain fatty acids are passed on to the duodenum

V. Pancreatic lipases digest dietary TAGs.

VI. Lingual lipase catalyze the breakdown of TAG molecules

a.I, II, III, IV, V, VI

b.VI, III, II, IV, I, V

c.III, II, I, IV, V, VI

d.IV, III, II, I, V, VI

B

Which of the following would have the highest cholesterol content compared to the others?

a.VLDL

b.LDL

c.IDL

d.HDL

B

Among the following lipids, which are most connected to a certain type of secondary messengers related to G proteins?

a.sphingolipids

b.triglycerides

c.sterols

d.phospholipids

D

Which of the following vitamins is needed as supplement by people who just had gastrectomy?

a.Vitamin B1

b.Vitamin B2

c.Vitamin B9

d.Vitamin B12

D

Which of the following hormones is produced when gastric contents enter the duodenum?

a.Cholecystokinin

b.Gastrin

c.Secretin

d.Motilin