General Anatomy, Physiology, and Histology

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/112

flashcard set

Earn XP

Description and Tags

Review for DLE 2025

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

113 Terms

1
New cards

What is the name of the combination of Stratum basale and Stratum spinosum?

Stratum germinativum or "Malphigian Layer”

<p>Stratum germinativum or "Malphigian Layer”</p>
2
New cards

Most numerous cells in epidermis

Keratinocytes

3
New cards

Most numerous protein in the body

Collagen

4
New cards

Mechanoreceptor of skin that has the function for hot and stretch

Ruffini corpuscle or Bulbous corpuscle

5
New cards

Mechanoreceptor of skin that has the function for cold

End-bulb of Krause

6
New cards

Mechanoreceptor of skin that has the function for pressure and proprioception

Pacinian Corpuscle

7
New cards

End product of Vitamin D synthesis

Calcitriol

8
New cards

The following are common causes of blue baby syndrome EXCEPT:
a. Methemoglobinemia

b. Erythroblastosis fetalis

c. Thalassemia

d. Congenital heart defects

c. Thalassemia

9
New cards

Ergocalciferol is also known as

Vitamin D2

10
New cards

Cholecalciferol is also known as

Vitamin D3

11
New cards

Other name for freckles

Ephelis or Ephelides

12
New cards

SCALP stands for…?

Skin
Connective tissue
Aponeuroses
Loose connective tissue
Periosteum

13
New cards

What type of collagen does the bone have?

Type 1 collagen

14
New cards

What type of bone cell that is for bone growth and repair?

Osteogenic or osteoprogenitor cell

15
New cards

What is the difference between between bone and osteoid?

Osteoid - non-mineralized

Bone - mineralized

16
New cards

Other name of alveolar bone proper?

Bundle bone + Cribriform plate

<p>Bundle bone + Cribriform plate</p>
17
New cards

Mineralized ligaments penetrating the bone tissues are known as?

Sharpey’s fibers (mineralized PDL)

<p>Sharpey’s fibers (mineralized PDL)</p>
18
New cards

The following are considered having an endochondral bone growth EXCEPT:

a. Temporal bone

b. Condyle

c. Occipital bone

d. Ethmoid

a. Temporal bone

Petrous part of the temporal bone is the only endochondral bone

<p>a. Temporal bone</p><p></p><p>Petrous part of the temporal bone is the only endochondral bone</p>
19
New cards
<p>The septal cartilage is made up of </p><p>a. Elastic cartilage</p><p>b. Hyaline cartilage</p><p>c. Fibrocartilage</p><p>d. Collagen cartilage</p>

The septal cartilage is made up of

a. Elastic cartilage

b. Hyaline cartilage

c. Fibrocartilage

d. Collagen cartilage

b. Hyaline cartilage

20
New cards
<p>Where does the frontal sinus drain to?</p>

Where does the frontal sinus drain to?

Infundibulum towards Hiatus semilunaris of Middle meatus in the nasal cavity.

<p>Infundibulum towards Hiatus semilunaris of Middle meatus in the nasal cavity.</p>
21
New cards
<p>Where does the maxillary sinus drain to?</p>

Where does the maxillary sinus drain to?

Ostium maxillare (opening of mx sinus that drains into the hiatus semilunaris of middle meatus of the nasal cavity)

<p>Ostium maxillare  (opening of mx sinus that drains into the hiatus semilunaris of middle meatus of the nasal cavity)</p>
22
New cards

Mucous membrane covering the maxillary sinus cavity

Schneiderian Membrane

23
New cards

Procedure done to add bone between sinus and alveolar bone?

Sinus lift

24
New cards

Best 2D radiograph to assess maxillary sinus?

Water’s view

<p>Water’s view</p>
25
New cards

Technique used to open maxillary sinus through the canine fossa

Caldwell-luc

26
New cards

Drainage of middle ethmoidal sinus

Ethmoidal bulla in middle meatus

<p>Ethmoidal bulla in middle meatus</p>
27
New cards

The only movable bone in the skull

Mandible

28
New cards

True or false: The palatine bone forms the floor of the orbit.

True

29
New cards

It is the framework or forerunner of the mandible (in formation).

Meckel’s cartilage

30
New cards

What is the ligament that connects the occipital bone to C7 in vertebrae?

Ligamentum nuchae

<p>Ligamentum nuchae</p>
31
New cards

Pathway of primary blood supply of brain

Internal carotid artery to Circle of Willis

<p>Internal carotid artery to Circle of Willis</p>
32
New cards

What nitrogenous bases are involved in uric acid formation?

Purine (adenine + guanine)

33
New cards

What condition that is caused by increased serum alkaline phosphatase in blood?

a. Osteitis

b. Rickets

c. Jacob’s syndrome

d. Paget’s disease

D. Paget’s disease

(or multiple myeloma if ito nasa choices)

34
New cards

Vitamin D/calcium deficiency AFTER epiphyseal closure (adult)

Osteomalacia

35
New cards

What is the stimulus for the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium ions?

Action potential

36
New cards

What does the myosin head need to detach itself from actin?

ATP

37
New cards

Binding site of calcium in smooth muscle cells

Calmodulin

38
New cards

Blocks myosin head from binding to actin in smooth muscle cells

Myosin light chain kinase

39
New cards

How does Rigor mortis happen?

Calcium ions leak into cytoplasm

40
New cards

Hospitals use Succinylcholine/Suxamethonium (binds to Ach receptors; causes muscle paralysis/relaxation) for?

Laryngospasm

41
New cards

Skeletal fibers that are red in color, slow-twitch, fatigue-resistant

Slow oxidative fibers / Red muscle fibers

42
New cards

Skeletal fibers that are white in color, fast-twitch, fatigues quickly

Fast glycolytic fibers

43
New cards

It is also called the “Caninus muscle” that elevates the angle of the mouth

a. Zygomaticus major

b. Levator anguli oris

c. Depressor labii inferioris

d. Levator labii inferioris

b. Levator anguli oris

<p>b. Levator anguli oris</p>
44
New cards

During IAN block, we puncture these structures EXCEPT:

a. Buccinator muscle

b. Sphenomandibular ligament

c. Medial pterygoid muscle

d. Stylomandibular ligament

d. Stylomandibular ligament

<p>d. Stylomandibular ligament</p>
45
New cards

If there is abscess in the pterygomandibular space, which muscle shoud we incise to drain the content?

a. Masseter

b. Buccinator

c. Medial pterygoid

d. Risorius

b. Buccinator

46
New cards

Structure where several facial muscles meet

Modiulus

<p>Modiulus</p>
47
New cards

What’s the muscle for the upper eyelid?

a. Levator palpebrae superioris

b. Superior tarsal plate

c. Corrugator supercilii

d. Orbicularis oculi

a. Levator palpebrae superioris

<p>a. Levator palpebrae superioris</p>
48
New cards

What cranial nerves innervate the muscles that (1) opens the eyes and (2) closes the eyes?

(1) CN 3

(2) CN 7

49
New cards

What is the structure in between the buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor?

Pterygomandibular raphe

(also a landmark for IAN block)

<p>Pterygomandibular raphe</p><p></p><p><em>(also a landmark for IAN block)</em></p>
50
New cards

Which muscle is responsible for side to side movement of the mandible?

a. Masseter

b. Internal (medial) pterygoid muscle

c. External (lateral) pterygoid muscle

d. Temporalis

c. External (lateral) pterygoid muscle


Internal pterygoid can also move the mandible side to side but the primary muscle responsible for this is the External pterygoid muscle.

<p>c. External (lateral) pterygoid muscle</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p>Internal pterygoid can also move the mandible side to side but the primary muscle responsible for this is the External pterygoid muscle.</p>
51
New cards

What is the major muscle for mouth opening?

a. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

b. External pterygoid muscle

c. Posterior belly of the digastric muscle

d. Internal pterygoid muscle

a. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

<p>a. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle</p>
52
New cards

All of the following extrinsic tongue muscles are innervated by CN XII EXCEPT:

a. Genioglossus

b. Styloglossus

c. Hyoglossus

d. Palatoglossus

d. Palatoglossus - innervated by Pharyngeal plexus CN 9 & 10

53
New cards

All of the following are intrinsic tongue muscles EXCEPT:

a. Vertical

b. Inferior longitudinal

c. Horizontal

d. Superior longitudinal

c. Horizontal


VITS

Vertical

Inferior longitudinal

Transverse

Superior longitudinal

<p>c. Horizontal</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p><em>VITS</em></p><p>Vertical</p><p>Inferior longitudinal</p><p><strong>Transverse</strong></p><p>Superior longitudinal</p>
54
New cards

All of the following are suprahyoid muscles EXCEPT:

a. Digastic

b. Mylohyoid

c. Sphenohyoid

d. Geniohyoid

c. Sphenohyoid


Digastic

Mylohyoid

Stylohyoid

Geniohyoid

<p>c. Sphenohyoid</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p>Digastic</p><p>Mylohyoid</p><p><strong>Stylohyoid</strong></p><p>Geniohyoid</p>
55
New cards

What muscle separates the submandibular gland into superficial and deep parts?

a. Geniohyoid muscle

b. Mylohyoid muscle

c. Digastic muscle

d. Sternothyroid muscle

b. Mylohyoid

<p>b. Mylohyoid</p>
56
New cards

All of the following are infrahyoid muscles EXCEPT:

a. Sternohyoid

b. Omothyroid

c. Sternothyroid

d. Thyrohyoid

b. Omothyroid


Sternohyoid

Omohyoid

Sternothyroid

Thyrohyoid

<p>b. Omothyroid </p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p>Sternohyoid</p><p><strong>Omohyoid</strong></p><p>Sternothyroid</p><p>Thyrohyoid</p>
57
New cards

All of the following are rotator cuff muscles EXCEPT:

a. Supraspinatus

b. Infraspinatus

c. Teres major

d. Subscapularis

c. Teres major


SITS

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

Teres minor

Subscapularis

<p>c. Teres major</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p><span style="color: blue"><em>SITS</em></span></p><p>Supraspinatus</p><p>Infraspinatus</p><p><strong>Teres minor</strong></p><p>Subscapularis</p>
58
New cards

All of the following are hamstring muscles EXCEPT:

a. Semimembranosus

b. Biceps femoris

c. Semitendinosus

d. Semimedialis

d. Semimedialis


Hams3ngs - Bi Semi Semi

Biceps femoris

Semimembranosus

Semitendinosus

<p>d. Semimedialis</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p><span style="color: blue"><em>Hams3ngs - Bi Semi Semi</em></span></p><p>Biceps femoris</p><p>Semimembranosus</p><p>Semitendinosus</p>
59
New cards

All of the following are quadriceps muscles EXCEPT:

a. Vastus intermedius

b. Rectus femoris

c. Semimembranosus

d. Vastus medialis

c. Semimembranosus


Sa Recto may 3 Vastus

Rectus femoris

Vastus lateralis

Vastus intermedius

Vastus medialis

<p>c. Semimembranosus</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p><span style="color: blue"><em>Sa Recto may 3 Vastus</em></span></p><p></p><p>Rectus femoris</p><p><strong>Vastus lateralis</strong></p><p>Vastus intermedius</p><p>Vastus medialis</p><p></p>
60
New cards

Most common muscle used in infants for drug administration

a. Vastus lateralis

b. Deltoid

c. Triceps

d. Gluetal muscles

a. Vastus lateralis

<p>a. Vastus lateralis</p>
61
New cards

Which muscle flex the legs?

a. Hamstrings

b. Quadriceps

a. Hamstrings


Quadriceps EXTEND the legs

62
New cards

Which muscle is innervated by the sciatic nerve?

a. Hamstrings

b. Quadriceps

a. Hamstrings


Quadriceps is innervated by the FEMORAL nerve

<p>a. Hamstrings</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p>Quadriceps is innervated by the FEMORAL nerve</p>
63
New cards

What is the longest cranial nerve?

a. Abducens never (CN 6)

b. Vagus nerve (CN 10)

c. Trochlear nerve (CN 4)

d. Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)

b. Vagus nerve (CN 10)

<p>b. Vagus nerve (CN 10)</p>
64
New cards

What is the longest intracranial nerve?

a. Abducens never (CN 6)

b. Vagus nerve (CN 10)

c. Trochlear nerve (CN 4)

d. Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)

c. Trochlear nerve (CN 4)

<p>c. Trochlear nerve (CN 4)</p>
65
New cards

What is the smallest cranial nerve?

a. Abducens never (CN 6)

b. Vagus nerve (CN 10)

c. Trochlear nerve (CN 4)

d. Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)

c. Trochlear nerve (CN 4)

66
New cards

What is the largest cranial nerve?

a. Abducens never (CN 6)

b. Vagus nerve (CN 10)

c. Trochlear nerve (CN 4)

d. Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)

d. Trigeminal nerve (CN 5)

67
New cards

Which is FALSE for serotonin?

a. Increases GI motility

b. Vasodilator

c. Makes you awake

b. Vasodilator


It is a vasoconstrictor

68
New cards

Opposite of melatonin

a. Histamine

b. Dopamine

c. Adrenaline

d. Noradrenaline

a. Histamine

69
New cards

Respiratory center is found on what part of brain?

a. Metencephalon

b. Mesencephalon

c. Medulla oblongata

d. Diencephalon

c. Medulla oblongata


Pons varolii in Metencephalon also controls respiration, but Medulla oblongata is the primary respiratory center.

<p>c. Medulla oblongata</p><div data-type="horizontalRule"><hr></div><p>Pons varolii in Metencephalon also controls respiration, but Medulla oblongata is the primary respiratory center.</p>
70
New cards

The central chemoreceptors is sensitive to the following EXCEPT:

a. Decreased O2 levels

b. Increased CO2 levels

c. Increased H+ levels

d. Decreased CO2 levels

d. Decreased CO2 levels


The central chemoreceptors are sensitive to:

1) Increased CO2 levels (hypercapnia)

2) Decreased O2 levels

3) Increased H+ levels


They are most sensitive to increased CO2 levels. If activated, there will be:

1) Increased breathing rate

2) Increased excretion of H+ in kidneys

71
New cards

General action of extrinsic muscles of tongue

Moves the tongue

72
New cards

General action of intrinsic muscles of tongue

Changes the shape of the tongue

73
New cards

The following are the components of the margin of the bony orbit, EXCEPT:

a. Frontal bone

b. Zygomatic bone

c. Maxilla

d. Nasal bone

d. Nasal bone

74
New cards

Which muscle is attached to malleus?

a. Stapedius

b. Tensor tympani

c. Levator angulii

d. Stapes

b. Tensor tympani muscle

75
New cards

Which of the two fontanelles is the first one to close during development?

a. Lambda

b. Bregma

a. Lambda


Lambda - closes at 12 mos

Bregma - closes at 18mos

76
New cards

How many pelvic bones are there in the body?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

b. 2

77
New cards

Which of the following is not a component of the pelvic inlet?

a. Sacral promontory

b. Ileopectinal line

c. Symphysis pubis

d. Acetabulum

d. Acetabulum

78
New cards

What level is the carina located in thw ribs?

a. Transverse ridge / Sternal angle

b. Manubrium

c. Body / Corpus

d. Xiphoid process

a. Transverse ridge / Sternal angle

79
New cards

Which is more lateral, radius or ulna?

a. Radius

b. Ulna

Radius

80
New cards

What is the most posterior of tarsals?

a. Calcaneus

b. Talus

c. Navicular

d. Cuneiform

a. Calcaneus

<p>a. Calcaneus</p>
81
New cards

Which is the two (origin or insertion) moves less?

a. Origin

b. Insertion

a. Origin

82
New cards

If the molar % of adenine is 20%, what is the molar % of cytosine?

a. 40%

b. 30%

c. 20%

d. 10%

b. 30%


/Following Chargatt’s rule:

A (20%) - T (20%)

G (x) - C (x)

100% - 40% = 60%

60% / 2 = 30%

A (20%) - T (20%)

G (30%) - C (30%)

83
New cards

What is the strand A for this amino acid sequence?

Leu - Arg

5’ AAC GUC 3’ (tRNA)


a. 3’ GAC GUU 5’

b. 3’ GAC GTT 5’

c. 3’ TCC AAC 5’

d. None of the above

b. 3’ GAC GTT 5’

84
New cards

In hemostasis, which of the following activates Prothrombin?

a. Factor 5 - Labile factor

b. Factor 9 - Christmas factor

c. Factor 1 - Fibrinogen

d. Factor 7 - Proconvertin

a. Factor V - Labile factor

Proper answer is Tissue Factor 10. If TF 10 is not in the choices, we can choose its co-factors: Labile factor (factor 5) or Calcium (factor 4)

Prothrombin is Factor 2

<p>a. Factor V - Labile factor</p><p></p><p>Proper answer is <strong>Tissue Factor 10</strong>. If TF 10 is not in the choices, we can choose its co-factors: Labile factor (factor 5) or Calcium (factor 4)</p><p></p><p>Prothrombin is Factor 2</p>
85
New cards

Most common hemophilia

a. A (TF8 deficiency)

b. B (TF 9 deficiency)

c. C (TF 11 deficiency)

a. A (TF 8 deficiency)

TF = Tissue factor

86
New cards

How many of the cranial nerves has a sensory innervation?

a. 6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 9

b. 7

87
New cards

Which if the cranial nerves secremotor function of the parotid gland?

a. Facial

b. Glossopharyngeal

c. Trigeminal

d. Hypoglossal

b. Glossopharyngeal

(salivary glands)

88
New cards

All of the following are innervated by the spinal nerve except:

a. Chest muscles

b. Trapezius

c. Abdomen

d. Triceps

b. Trapezius

from Dr. Carigma: if Trapzius and Sternocleidomastoid are among the choices, it’s the answer. They are innervated by spinal accessory.

89
New cards

Which viral infection presents as painful blisters in a dermatomal pattern?

a. Ulticaria

b. Herpes labialis

c. Herpes zoster

d. Cellulitis

c. Herpes zoster (caused by Varicella zoster virus)

site of latency: dorsal root of ganglion

  • affecrs the sensory aspect of spinal nerve = presents in a dermatomal pattern

90
New cards

Which of the following gives you myelin in the central nervous system?

a. Oligodendrocytes

b. Schwann cells

a. Oligodendrocytes

91
New cards

How many nodes of Ranview should be blocked to halt impulse propagation?

a. 1 node

b. 2-3 nodes

c. 4-5 nodes

d. None

b. 2-3 nodes of Ranvier

92
New cards

How many millimeter of the axon should be blocked to halt impulse propagation?

a. 2-5mm

b. 8-12mm

c. 15-18mm

d. Doesn’t matter

b. 8-12mm OR 10-15mm

For every 4-5mm of the axon, there is a node of Ranvier. We need 2-3 nodes of Ranvier to block to halt impulse propagation.

93
New cards

Which has the faster conduction?

a. Myelinated axon

b. Non-mmyelinated axon

a. Myelinated axon

Conduction jumps from one myelin to another = faster

94
New cards

Which nerve fiber is blocked first?

a. Large, myelinated

b. Large, non-myelinated

c. Small, myelinated

d. Small, non-myelinated

d. Small, non-myelinated

95
New cards

Which myofilament is responsible for muscle elasticity?

a. Actin

b. Myosin

c. Titin

d. All of the above

c. Titin

96
New cards

Which of the following cartilages is the weakest?

a. Hyaline

b. Elastic

c. Fibrous

a. Hyaline

97
New cards

Which is responsible for mediating allergic reaction?

a. IgM, IgA, IgE

b. IgA, IgE, IgD

c. IgM, IgA, IgE

d. IgM, IgG, IgE

d. IgM, IgG, IgE

IgE - Type 1 hypersensitivity

IgM, IgG - Type 2 hypersensitivity

98
New cards

Which is responsible for opsonization (marking the pathogen for phagocytosis)of bacteria?

a. C5a

b. C3a

c. C3b

d. C5a

c. C3b

99
New cards

Which of the following is attacked by HIV?

a. Killer T cells or CD4

b. Helper T cells or CD8

a. Killer T cells or CD4

100
New cards

Which among the paranasal sinuses does not have a direct drainage to the middle meatus?

a. Frontal sinus

b. Ethmoid sinus

c. Maxillary sinus

d. Sphenoid sinus

d. Sphenoid sinus