Avit 414 Block 3 Exam (Miesel)

What are the characteristics of an effective assessment?

o Flexible

o Acceptable

o Specific

o Thoughtful

o Comprehensive

o Objective

o Constructive

o Organized

Flexible

o Designed and executed to allow for variables

Acceptable

o Presented fairly with authority

Specific

o Specific feedback from your instructor and specific recommendations

Thoughtful

Thinking of your learners needs for self-esteem, recognition, and approval

Comprehensive

o Degree of coverage for both strengths and weaknesses

Objective

Based of facts

Constructive

o Assessment must benefit the learner and include praise for things done well

Organized

o Must be logical and make sense

Characteristics of a good test

-Comprehensiveness

-Objectivity

-Reliability

-Discrimination

- Validity

- Usability

Types of authentic assessments

- Learner centered assessment

- Grading maneuvers or procedures

- Assessing risk management skills

Learner centered assessment (Definition and Aspects)

- Asks the learner to perform real-world tasks and demonstrate application of skills

4 Rs

o Replay: learner verbally replays the procedures

o Reconstruct: identify key areas of improvement

o Reflect: reflect on events to form meaning

o Redirect: relate lessons learned to other experiences

Grading maneuvers or procedures

-Describe: learner can describe the characteristics and elements, but needs help executing

-Explain: learner can describe the underlying concepts and principles but needs help executing

-Practice: learner can plan and execute with assistance

-Perform: learner can perform the activity without assistance and can identify and correct errors quickly

Assessing risk management skills

- What level is the student at for a given scenario?

o Explain: learner can verbally identify, describe, and understand the risks inherent in the flight scenario

o Practice: learner can identify, understand, and apply SRM principles to the actual flight situation

o Manage-decide: hands off, identifying and mitigating risks

Choosing an effective assessment method?

o 1. Determining level of learning objectives

o 2. List indicators of desired behaviors

o Establish criterion objectives

o 4.Develop criterion-referenced test items

Describe critique

o Used in conjunction with traditional or authentic assessment

o Not meant to be overly critical for the learner

§ Critique good and bad performance

o Should come immediately after learners performance

What are the types of critique?

o Instructor/learner critique: Instructor leads a group where members of a class offer criticism of a leader

o Learner led critique: Instructor prompts learner to lead assessment

o Small group Critique: Class divided into small groups with each assigned to a specific area

o Individual learner by another learner: Another learner presents the entire assessment

o Self critique: Learner critiques personal performance

o Written critique: Written account of performance completed by either the instructor or the learner

characteristics of an oral assessment

o Direct or indirect questioning

o Fact questions: who, what ,when and where

§ Requires the learner to simply recall information

o HOTS questions: why or how?

§ HOTS= Higher order thinking questions that require the learner to apply, analyze, and evaluate

Characteristics of effective questions

• Centered on 1 idea

• Adapted to learners’ ability

• Brief and concise, yet clear and definite

• Applies to the subject of instruction

• Presents a new challenge to the learner

Types of effective questions

o Overhead: directed question to an entire group to stimulate thought

o Rhetorical: directed to the group, but the instructor answers

o Direct: a response is desired from an individual

o Reverse: Response to a student's question with another question

o Sending/Relay: sending a student's question back to the group

Questions to avoid

o Yes/no questions: too simple and don't evaluate knowledge

o Puzzle: too complicated

o Oversize: too broad (how to fly cross country?)

o Toss up: no wrong answer

o Bewilderment: Confusing

o Trick questions: confuse the learner to cause doubt

What are tips for effectively responding to questions

o Be sure that you clearly understand the question before attempting the answer

o Display interest in the learner's question and frame an answer that is as direct and accurate as possible

o After responding, determine whether or not the learner is satisfied with the answer

Describe SBT

o Focus of training need to address pilot decision making and risk management

o Training that goes beyond the traditional tasl and maneuver based training is recommended

o Teach the advanced pilot judgement and risk management skills required in the SRM environment

o Flight instructor is key to success

o Remembering that the learning objective is for the learner to be more ready to exercise sound judgement and make good decisions; the flight instructor turns the responsibility for planning and execution of the flight over to the learner as soon as possible

What does FAR 91.117 say about aircraft speed limits?

Below 10,000MSL: no more than 250kts

at or below 2,500 AGL and within 4NM of a primary airport in class C or Class D airspace: no more than 200kts

Below Class BL no more than 200kts

Class A airspace

FL 180 to FL600

Only IFR traffic can enter

Class B airspace (all MSL)

Up to 10,000ftMSL

Used at busy airports

• Surrounded by mode C veil (30 nm range)

• Entry requirements

• Must have clearance to enter B airspace

• Must hold PPL or student pilot with endorsement with CFI

Required items to enter:

• Two way radio

• Mode C transponder

• ADS-B-Out

Required visibility

• 3 SM, CoC

- solid blue lines/altitudes(MSL)

Class C airspace

• mini Bravo

• Magenta

• Used with airports with considerable amounts of commercial traffic

• What it looks like

• Inner core: 5NM radius, extends from SFC-4,000AGL

• Outer shelf: 10NM radius, extends from 1,200ft - 4,000ft AGL

Entry requirements:

• 2 way radio

• Mode C transponder

• ADS-B-Out

Weather minimums:

• 3-152

Class D airspace

• dashed blue line

• Minimal COMMERCIAL traffic

• What it looks like

• 5NM radius

• 2 way radio

• Requirements to enter

• Two way radio

• Weather minimums

• 3-512

• used in AGL, shown on sectional as MSL

Class E airsoace

• dashed magenta means echo to surface

• Controlled for IFR

• Entry requirements

• ADS-B-Out above 10,000ft MSL

• Weather minimums

• Below 10,000ft: 3-512

• Above 10,000ft: 5-111

• Why does the minimum change? No speed limit

• Dashed, magenta: at surface

G airspace

• anything else not including E airspace

• Below 1,200AGL day 1-CoC, Night: 3-512

• Above 1,200AGL: Day 1-512/Night 3-512

• Above 10,000ft: 5-111

What are the special use airspaces?

ADIZ

Prohibited Area

Restricted Area

Warning Area

MOA

Alert Area

What are requirements to go through an ADIZ

IFR or DVFR flight plan

Two way radio

Mode C transponder

How can you identify Prohibited airspace?

Blue hashed lines with P

How can you identify restricted airspace?

Blue hashed with R

How can you identify a warning area?

Blue hashed with a W

How can you identify a MOA?

Magenta with hashed border

What are some other airspaces?

TRSA: not mandatory, provides radar services

Wildlife areas: not required, minimum altitude of 2000AGL; blue dotted line; only land if emergency

National security area: not mandatory; but try to avoid for national security

TFR: implemented for a temporary (mostly) time for a certain situation: on FDC notams

MTR(Military Training Route): military operations

SFRA: special flight rules area

what are the 3 published VFR routes?

1. Flyways

2.VFR corridor

3. Class B transition route(clearance required)

What is a runway incursion?

Anything on a controlled surface without a clearance

What are some ways to practice traffic patterns?

o Chair fly

o Observation flights

o Study

§ Flight training labs blackboard site

§ UND interactive trainers

· Taxi trainer

· TAC trainer

§ SP&P section 7: local area ops

What speed should we be at 5NM outside of the airport prior to entering the pattern?

Begin Slowing down to 100kts

What is the power setting for 100kts in the archer?

22-2300RPM

How far away from the runway do we want to be in the downwind?

1/2 to 3/4 mile (use wing as reference)

What do we use as an aimpoint for landing?

o Point abeam papi/vasi

o 1,000ft markers

o Pilot choice 1/3 of the runway more than at least 200' past threshold

What speed do you enter the round out at? touchdown?

Mid-high 50s, mid-high 40s

What factors determine when you turn base behind traffic?

o Airspeed (Seminole vs archer)

o Type of landing (full stop vs touch and go)

o Type of wind

How do you depart a pattern at an uncontrolled airport?

o Upwind

o 45º off upwind

What is UND low VFR departure procedure and when is it used?

1.Fly runway heading until out of the D airspace

2. when clouds stop you from using normal UND departure procedure

3.What should you do if there are clouds blocking departure route?

§ Fly runway heading until outside the delta

§ 27L/R request VFR low departure

§ 9L/R fly until east of GFK city

What do you use for reference when pushing back for parking?

Straight ahead and on the rivet line

Reference the tailcone on pushback