Ver. 2 CRAT test 1-5

1/TF

Which of the following results in improved understanding, improved self-advocacy, increased compliance, and better patient outcomes?

1. Risk management

2. Informed consent

3. Satisfaction surveys

4. Patient education

Patient education

2/TF

Which of the following controls regulates the output of height of ECG waveform?

1. Speed

2. Signal processor

3. Output display

4. Gain

Gain

3/TF

Which of the following leads are bipolar?

1. Precordial leads

2. Limb leads I-III

3. Limb leads IV-VI

4. Limb leads I-VI

Limb leads I-III

• Limb leads (bipolar)

  • I, II, III

• Augmented Limb leads (unipolar)

  • aVR, aVL, aVF

• Precordial leads / chest leads (unipolar)

  • V1-V6

4/TF

Multifocal atrial tachycardia appears most often in patients with which of the following conditions?

1. Congestive heart failure

2. Chronic pulmonary disease

3. Digoxin toxicity

4. Hypotension

Chronic pulmonary disease

• Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease,

• Pulmonary hypertension increases cardiac workload on the R-atrium/ventricle.

• It results in structural and electrical remodeling of the heart, particularly affecting the atria where MAT originates

5/TF

The entire network of specialized nervous tissue that extends through the ventricles is known as which of the following?

1. Cardiac conduction system

2. Bachmann’s Bundle

3. His-Purkinje system

4. Fasciculi system

His-Purkinje system

1. SA node

2. AV node

3. Bundle of His

4. Bundle branches

5. (Fasciculi on LBB)

6. Purkinje fibers

7/TF

At least how long of an ECG tracing of P wave are measured to determine whether the P waves are occurring regularly or irregularly?

1. 3 second

2. 6 seconds

3. 10 seconds

4. 1 minute

10 seconds

8/TF

The physical action of ventricular contraction in reality continues how long compared to the QRS complex that represents it?

1. Lesslong

2. As long

3. Longer

4. QRS does not represent this

Longer

• While the QRS complex marks the start of the ventricular depolarization, it does not cover the entire duration of the subsequent mechanical contraction of the ventricles.

10/TF

When performing an ECG recording on a patient, the technician observes frequent PVC’s. Which of the following would not be considered signs or symptoms for the patient that is experiencing this arrhythmia?

1. No symptoms at all

2. Dizziness

3. Feeling of a forceful beat

4. Headaches

Headaches

3/T1

If single-lead monitoring is performed, which of the following information would it not gather?

1. The patient’s heart rate

2. The age of the patient

3. The length of conduction in different parts of the heart

4. If the heartbeat is regular or irregular

The age of the patient

4/T1

Which of the following would be considered the color of the chest leads?

1. White

2. red

3. Brown

4. Green

Brown

6/T1

When ECG technician is making entries in the patient’s medical records regarding their ECG, which of the following would not be included?

1. The patient’s medical history

2. The identification of the patient

3. Diagnostic test result

4. The height and weight of the patient

The height and weight of the patient

8/T1

High-voltage artifact potentials are generally interpreted by the monitor as QRS complexes and activate the high-rate alarm in a monitoring problem known as which of the following?

1. Muscle tremor alarm

2. False high-rate alarm

3. Telemetry-related interference

4. False low-rate alarm

False high-rate alarm

13/T1

An accurate word that the technician can use in place of electrodes to keep from instilling fear in the adult patient would be which of the following?

1. Plug

2. Stickers

3. Sensors

4. Recorders

Sensors

17/T1

When a compensatory pause does not occur, the premature ventricular contraction is called which of the following?

1. Uniform

2. Diminished

3. Interpolated

4. Aberrant

Interpolated

Reason 1. The ectopic impulse is generated and clears out quickly enough that the heart's natural pacemaker (the SA node) isn't reset.

Reason 2 The electrical signal travels in a way that allows the next normal sinus beat to arrive exactly on time

18/T1

The left bundle branch splits into two branches known as which of the following?

1. Capillaries

2. Fibers

3. Nodes

4. Fasciculi

Fasciculi

20/T1

Which of the following is the weight of the human heart?

1. 6-11 oz

2. 8-12 oz

3. 10-15 oz

4. 12-17 oz

8-12 oz

24/T1

When examining a rhythm strip from an AAI pacemaker patient, each spike is immediately followed by which of the following?

1. Wide QRS complex

2. T wave

3. P-wave complex

4. Narrow QRS complex

P-wave complex

27/T1

Atrial tachycardia is characterized by which of the following?

1. Extended QRS complex

2. Three or more successive ectopic atrial beats at a rate of >100 bpm

3. Normal sinus P wave

4. Three or more successive ectopic atrial beats at a rate of 250 to 300 bpm

Three or more successive ectopic atrial beats at a rate of >100 bpm

29/T1

As a result of bradycardia, which of the following tends to diminish?

1. Vagal stimulation

2. Automaticity

3. Metabolic demands

4. Oxygenation

Automaticity

33/T1

Which of the following acts as an safety mechanism to protect the heart from ventricular standstill?

1. Premature ventricular contractions

2. Idioventricular rhythm

3. Torsades de pointe

4. Asystole

Idioventricular rhythm

38/T1

A maneuver to purposely activate the baroreceptors in the carotid arteries to slow a rapid heart rate is known as which of the following?

1. Carotid sinus massage

2. Carotid sinus activation

3. Carotid receptor massage

4. Carotid receptor activation

Carotid Sinus massage

40/T1

The overall form and structure of a wave on a rhythm strip is known as which of the following?

1. Vagal tone

2. Palpitations

3. J point

4. Morphorogy

Morphology

41/T1

ECG lead II produces a positive deflection, and the positive electrode should be placed on which of the following?

1. Right leg

2. Left leg

3. Right arm

4. Left arm

Left leg

42/T1

How many different types of atrial tachycardia are there?

1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. Four

Three

1. Atrial Tachycardia with Block

   1. A specific heart rhythm where the upper heart chambers (atria) beat rapidly (150–250 bpm), but the AV node acts as a safety filter, preventing every electrical impulse from reaching the ventricles

2. Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia

3. Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia

43/T1

An arrhythmia that has a PR interval of less than 0.12 second originated where in the heart?

1. SA node

2. Atria

3. Ventricles

4. AV junction

AV junction

44/T1

Ventricular repolarization is represented by which of the following cardiac complex waves?

1. P

2. A

3. Q

4. T

T wave

50/T1

Which of the following changes would most directly decrease peripheral blood flow by reducing effective ventricular contraction and cardiac output?

1. Arterial oxygen saturation

2. Ventricular electrical activity

3. Mitral valve regurgitation severity

4. Peripheral vascular resistance

Ventricular electrical activity

52/T1

The typical dosage of Atropine that is administered to the patient that is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia would be considered which of the following?

1. 0.01 mg

2. 0.5 mg

3. 10mg

4. 5 g

0.5 mg

53/T1

The space which is between the lungs that contain the heart would be considered the ____?

1. Myocardium

2. Epicardium

3. Mediastinum

4. Pericardium

Mediastinum

56/T1

Which of the following is not one of the common causes of junctional escape?

1. Vagal stimulation

2. Sick sinus syndrome

3. Digoxin toxicity

4. Stroke

Stroke

• Common causes of junctional rhythm

  • Sick sinus syndrome

  • Vagal stimulation

  • Electrolyte imbalances

  • Digoxin toxicity

  • MI

  • Rheumatic heart disease

58/T1

The T wave’s peak represents which of the following?

1. Relative refractory period of ventricular repolarization

2. End of ventricular depolarization

3. End of ventricular conduction

4. Presence of myocardial infarction or ischemia

Relative refractory period of ventricular repolarization

59/T1

Prolonged PR Intervals are associated with which of the following?

1. Junctional arrhythmias

2. Conduction delays

3. Pre-excitation syndromes

4. Speeding through the atria

Conduction delays

62/T1

If a P wave has an amplitude of> 2.5 mm in lead II or >1.5 mm in V1, which of the following may be indicated?

1. Left atrial enlargement

2. Retrograde atrial depolarization

3. Right atrial enlargement

4. Reverse or retrograde conduction

Right atrial enlargement

64/T1

When measuring ventricular regularity on a 12-lead ECG and R waves are absent or not clearly visible, which point is preferred for measuring successive ventricular cycles?

1. P wave peak (atrial depolarization)

2. Q wave onset (initial downward deflection of the QRS)

3. S wave nadir (deepest negative deflection of QRS)

4. J point (junction of the QRS complex and the ST segment)

S wave nadir

(deepest negative deflection of the QRS)

Q onset can be useful if it’s consistently sharp, but initial deflections may be slurred or variable;

S wave nadir is generally a more reproducible ventricular marker when R is absent

74/T1

Which of the following do atrial arrhythmias result from?

1. Impulses that originate outside the SA node

2. Impulses that originate from the SA node

3. Ventricular conditions

4. Atrial conditions

Impulses which originate outside the SA node

77/T1

Which of the following is mainly caused by an irritable spot or focus that happens outside of the SA node?

1. Sinus arrest

2. SA block

3. Sinus bradycardia

4. Premature atrial contractions

Premature atrial contractions

PAC usually caused by an irritable spot.

85/T1

Is the sequence method of calculating atrial rate, the technician must memorize a series of numbers to assign to which of the following?

1. P waves that peak on heavy black lines

2. P waves that peak below heavy black lines

3. The heavy black lines between P waves

4. The light black lines between P waves

The heavy black lines between P waves

86/T1

Two sets of chemicals in the sympathetic nervous system that are highly influenced by this system include which of the following?

1. Acetylcholine and baroreceptors

2. Norepinephrine and epinephrine

3. Calcium and potassium

4. Sodium and calcium

Norepinephrine and epinephrine

(naw-reh-puh-NEH-fruhn)

• Primary chemicals driving the sympathetic nervous system and the acute “fight-or-flight” stress response.

89/T1

How many electrodes would a unipolar lead have?

1. three

2. One

3. Four

4. Six

One

90/T1

During repolarization, which of the following ventricular myocytes charges must recover in order to be depolarized again?

1. Resting positive charge

2. Active negative charge

3. Resting negative charge

4. Active positive charge

Resting negative charge

93/T1

Saying words correctly would be considered ____ and speaking clearly would be considered ____?

1. Pronunciation / enunciation

2. Enunciation / pronunciation

3. Enunciation / formally

4. Speaking / enunciation

Pronunciation / Enunciation

A requisition for an ECG procedure must include the reason for the exam and all of the following except?

1. Patient identification information

2. Patient vital signs

3. Patient medications

4. Patient weight and height

Patient weight and height

98/T1

Of the following, which would be considered the appropriate term for an individual that helps the patient seek information and resources?

1. Nurse aide

2. Nurse practitioner

3. Nurse manager

4. Patient advocate

Patient advocate

3/T2

The force the heart has to push against would be considered the _________?

1. Preload

2. Cardiac output

3. Conductivity

4. Afterload

Afterload

4/T2

Predisposing factors for the development of PVC’s would include all of the following except?

1. Normal potassium and magnesium

2. Hypokalemia

3. Digoxin toxicity

4. Caffeine

Normal potassium and magnesium

6/T2

In regards to the Glasgow coma scoring system, if the patient opens their eyes to pain, is confused, and move to localized pain, which of the following would be considered the correct score?

1. 6

2. 15

3. 11

4. 12

11

11/T2

Which of the following is commonly triggered by ineffective contact between the patient’s skin and the electrode-leadwire system?

1. False low-rate alarm

2. Muscle tremors

3. False high-rate alarm

4. Telemetry monitoring

False low-rate alarm

12/T2

If an impulse from outside pathway other than the bundle of His causes depolarization of the ventricles, it can cause which of the following?

1. Junctional tachycardia

2. Accelerated junctional rhythm

3. Ventricular arrhythmias

4. Junctional arrhythmias

Ventricular arrhythmia

15/T2

Which of the following is common cause of Wandering Atrial Pacemaker?

1. Increased Vagal Tone

2. Digoxin toxicity

3. Diabetes mellitus

4. Lupus erythematosus

Increased vagal tone

(e.x., during sleep, in athletes, with pulmonary disease)

16/T2

Simply stretching the outer layer of the skin can produce which of the following?

1. Large baseline shifts

2. Electrical signals

3. Asystole

4. Tachycardia

Electrical signals

18/T2

Sinus arrest occurs when the sinoatrial (SA) node fails to generate an impulse. Which of the following is a recognized cause of sinus arrest?

1. Increased sympathetic stimulation

2. Hyperthyroidism

3. Heart disease producing SA node ischemia or fibrosis

4. Minimal doses of beta-adrenergic blockers

Heart disease producing SA node ischemia or fibrosis (sick sinus syndrome)

20/T2

Which of the following can cause the atria and ventricles to beat out of sync due to longer-than-normal conduction?

1. Retrograde conduction

2. Re-entry events

3. Compensatory beat

4. Ectopy

Retrograde conduction

Retrograde conduction (VentriculoAtrial conduction)：backward electrical direction of travel

• The backward movement of electrical signals in the heart, traveling from the ventricles or the node back up into the atria.

• This triggers inverted retrograde P waves on an ECG and can lead to arrhythmias like pacemaker-medicated tachycardia.

• Retrograde conduction is a feature of a junctional rhythm

21/T2

In left bundle branch block the QRS complex is greater than 0.12 seconds because the ventricles are activated in which of the following ways?

1. Simltaneously

2. Sequentially

3. Spontaneously

4. Segmentally

Sequentially

Right ventricle first, then the left

25/T2

Sick sinus syndrome’s prognosis is considered worse if atrial fibrillation occurs due to the possibility of which of the following?

1. Thromboembolic complications

2. Prolonged pauses

3. Syncope

4. Sinus arrest

Thromboembolic complications

SSSS > A fib > Clots

29/T2

Which of the following shows the electrical changes in a myocardial cell during the depolarization-repolarization cycle?

1. Conduction system

2. Impulse pathway

3. Action potential curve

4. Myocardial change chart

Action potential curve

Action Potential Curve: A graph illustrating the rapid changes in voltage across a cell membrane over time.

33/T2

AAI pacemaker s are not used in which of the following conditions?

1. Sinus bradycardia

2. Atrial standstill

3. AV block

4. Sick sinus syndrome

AV block

35/T2

Which of the following types of permanent pacing requires cardiac surgery to place wires?

1. Transcutaneous pacing

2. Epicardial pacing

3. Transvenous pacing

4. Defibrillator pacing

Epicardial pacing

• Transcutaneous pacing: Non-invasive patch electrode

• Transvenous Pacing: inserting lead.

36/T2

An electronic record of a patient’s health information that is created and maintained by a single healthcare provider or organization and is used for care during one or more encounters is best described as which of the following?

1. Electronic medical record

2. Electronic health record

3. Personal health record

4. Health information exchange

Electronic Medical Record

37/T2

Which type of sinoatrial block involves a regular rhythm with pauses until a whole PQRST complex is blocked?

1. First degree

2. Second degree type I

3. Second degree type II

4. Third degree

Second degree type II

38/T2

Which of the following is not a cause of temporary AV block?

1. Cardiomyopathy

2. Myocardial infarction

3. Cardiac surgery

4. Calcium channel blockers

Cardiomyopathy

• Cause of AV block

  • Digoxin

  • Myocardial Infarction (temporary)

  • Cardiac surgery (temporary)

  • Calcium channel blockers

39/T2

Which type of lead wire should be attached prior to the electrode being placed on the patient’s chest?

1. Clip-on

2. Contact

3. Snap-on

4. Twist-on

Snap-on

43/T2

Which of the following is the most common cause of junctional tachycardia?

1. Congenital disease in children

2. Posterior or inferior wall myocardial infarction or ischemia

3. Digoxin toxicity

4. Swelling of the AV junction following heart surgery

Digoxin Toxicity

44/T2

Which of the following is not a condition that can disrupt electrolyte shifts?

1. Metabolic acidosis

2. Hypoxia

3. Myocarditis

4. Depressant drug intoxication

Depressant drug intoxication

1. Metabolic acidosis >acid buildup

2. Hypoxia >acid-base disturbance

3. Myocarditis >inflammation of muscle alter electrolytes management

46/T2

Which of the following is not a cause of permanent AV block?

1. Congenital abnormalities

2. Digoxin toxicity

3. Myocardial Infarction

4. Cardiomyopathy

Digoxin toxicity

51/T2

The NB should only be employed when absolutely necessary for which of the following reasons?

1. It requires patient movement during the exam

2. The filter reduces interference

3. The filter will distort the ECG reading

4. The filter increases interference

The filter will distort the ECG reading

distort=alter contaminate

The option "the filter reduces interference" is incorrect because it describes what the filter does, not the reason to restrict its use.

59/T2

Which of the following will happen when the current is traveling perpendicular to the lead?

1. Wave is deflected in both directions

2. Wave is deflected down

3. Wave is flat

4. Wave is deflect up

Wave is deflect up

78/T2

During diastole, when the ventricles relax, it allows for which of the following to occur?

1. Pushes blood out of the ventricles

2. Pushes the blood out of the superior vena cava

3. Allows the atria to create space for receiving more blood

4. None of the above

Allows to the atria to create space for receiving more blood

81/T2

Which of the following is not typically one of the cause of ventricular fibrillation?

1. Myocardial infarction

2. Angina

3. Myocardial ischemia

4. Underlying heart disease

Angina

84/T2

In the QRS complex, which of the following is represented by the S wave?

1. Conduction of the electrical impulse through both ventricles

2. Conduction of the electrical impulse down the interventricular septum

3. Conduction of the electrical impulse to the left ventricle

4. The end of ventricular depolarization and the beginning of ventricular repolarization

Conduction of the electrical impulse through both ventricles

• Q wave: interventricular septum.

• R wave: Ventricular apex and large main walls

• S wave: Basal regions of both ventricles

90/T2

The intrinsic firing rate of the Bundle of His would be considered which of the following?

1. 70-85 bpm

2. 40-60 bpm

3. 60-80 bpm

4. 20-45 bpm

40-60 bpm

• 60-80 bpm = SA node

• 40-60 bpm = AV node & Bundle of His

  • 20-40 bpm = Purkinje Fibers

97/T2

The act of leaving a patient's chart open or out in an area where other patients or visitors can see it is a breach of which of the following?

1. Ethics

2. HIPAA

3. Confidentiality

4. All of the above

All of the above

4/T3

If a patient is experiencing sinus bradycardia and is symptomatic, which of the following would this rhythm not be the cause of?

1. Chest pain

2. Shortness of breath

3. Diarrhea

4. Hypotension

Diarrhea

symptoms NOT caused by Sinus Brady

5/T3

Which of the following will cause the baseline to have an uneven, coarsely jagged appearance that obscures the waveforms on the ECG?

1. Telemetry monitoring

2. Wandering baseline

3. Electrical interference

4. Muscle tremors

Muscle tremors

(somatic tremors)

coarsely jagged(粗くギザギザした)

obscures （不明瞭な）

6/T3

Of the following, which would not be considered a potential cause for a patient to experience breathlessness?

1. Severe pulmonary edema

2. Cardiac arrhythmias

3. Osteoporosis

4. Pericarditis

Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis: a condition that cause bones to become weak and brittle

7/T3

The lateral leads would be considered which of the following?

1. III

2. aVF

3. I

4. V2

I

11/T3

Which of the following would be considered concurrent with the end of ventricular systole?

1. T wave

2. R wave

3. Q wave

4. S wave

T wave

QRS is V-depolarization (signal to contract)

Mechanical functions=Ventricular systole

The end of ventricular systole coincides with the beginning of ventricular repolarization, which is marked by the T wave.

Thus, the T wave occurs concurrently(同時に) with the end of ventricular systole.

14/T3

Which of the following controls increases or decreases the size of the EKG tracing on the rhythm paper?

1. LCD display

2. Standardization

3. Speed

4. Gain

Gain.

It’s about height

20/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

What is unique about the T wave on a rhythm strip with ventricular tachycardia?

1. Missing from the waveform

2. Inverted from normal

3. Opposite direction from QRS complex

4. Nothing

Opposite direction from QRS complex

21/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Vagal maneuvers and medications, such as which of the following, can be employed to slow the heart rate in symptomatic junctional tachycardia patients?

1. Adenosine

2. Amiodarone

3. Digoxin

4. Verapamil

Adenosine

22/T3

Rhythm strip (HR 200, Regular, No P)

1. Asystole

2. Atrial flutter

3. Atrial tachycardia

4. Atrial fibrillation

Atrial Tachycardia

It’s not A-flutter 1:1 because

1. Presence of P waves (with intervals)

2. HR is too slow. Atrial Tachycardia should be 100-250bpm. Aflutter 1:1 should be 250-350 bpm

3. They are not Flutter wave

It’s not A fib RVR, because

1. Regularity

2. presence of P wave (with interval)

have’s P wave, not flutter wave.

24/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

When sinus arrhythmia is related to respiration, there will be which of the following with inspiration?

1. Increase in heart rate

2. Decrease in heart rate

3. Regularity in heart rate

4. Pause in heart rate

Increase in heart rate

(inspiration=inhale » inhale increase heart rate)

26/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

The time between the end of depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles would be considered which of the following?

1. PR interval

2. QT interval

3. PP segment

4. ST segment

ST segment

27/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Sinus tachycardia can worsen myocardial ischemia by increasing the heart’s demand for which of the following?

1. Oxygen

2. Electrical impulse

3. Blood

4. Rest

Oxygen

1. Heart muscle works harder

2. More oxygen needed

   1. but can’t get it because HR too fast, so cell begin to die

28/T3

Third-degree AV block is most commonly classified as which of following?

1. Drug-induced (caused by medication)

2. Surgery-induced (resulting from surgery or procedural injury)

3. Congenital (Present at birth)

4. Acquired degenerative or disease-related (due to progressive conduction)

Acquired degenerative or disease-related

(They all can be cause)

30/T3

Premature Atrial Contractions are rarely dangerous but in a patient with which of the following conditions, they can serve as an early sign of heart failure or electrolyte imbalance?

1. Nonconductor premature atrial contractions

2. Hypoxia

3. Acute myocardial infarction

4. Pulmonary disease

Acute myocardial infarction

• PAC on MI can trigger the R-on-T phenomenon and lead to V-tach.

• On ECG, “Sinus rhythm with acute ST elevation and frequent PACs”

33/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Asystole must be confirmed in more than one lead due to the fact that it closely resembles which of the following?

1. Fine ventricular fibirillation

2. Sinus pause

3. AV block

4. Artiact

Fine ventricular fibrillation

because its visual similarity to Asystole

34/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

How many pulmonary veins does the human body contain?

1. 2

2. 3.

3. 4

4. 5

4

• 4 pulmonary veins connected to the left atrium

  • Right Superior

  • Right Inferior

  • Left Superior

  • Left Inferior

37/T3

All of the following medications could cause bradycardia except?

1. Beta-adrenergic blocker

2. Digoxin

3. Amiodarone

4. NSAIDs

NSAIDs

Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs

39/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Chest lead electrodes always which of the following?

1. Negative

2. Neutral

3. Positive

4. Horizontal

Positive

• Chest leads = V1-V6

43/T3

Repolarization is an electrical phenomenon that immediately follows depolarization and appears on the electrocardiogram as which of the following?

1. Spike

2. Inverted Spike

3. Broad hump

4. Narrow hump

Broad hump

as T wave

45/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

Which of the following would be NOT considered the most commonly used leads for arrhythmia monitoring?

1. Lead 2

2. V1

3. V4

4. MCL1

V4

• Lead II is the best

46/T3 [ ECG Fundamentals ]

The atrial relax and fill with blood during which of the following?

1. Systole

2. Asystole

3. Diastole

4. Cardistole

Diastole

48/T3

If the Q wave is absent, the QRS complex should be measured from the beginning of which wave?

1. P

2. R

3. S

4. T

R

50/T3

Which of the following is the cell’s ability to transmit electrical impulses?

1. Automaticity

2. Excitability

3. Elasticity

4. Conductivity

Conductivity

• Conductivity: the ability of nerve and muscle cells to transmit electrical signals across their membranes.

51/T3

The AV node’s primary function is to do which of the following?

1. Instigate electrical impulse

2. Redirect impulses

3. Delay impulses

4. All of the above

Delay impulse

57/T3

Which of the following leads would have a depression of the ST segment if the patient has experienced a posterior AMI?

1. V3

2. aVL

3. III

4. V6

V3

Posterior = V1, V2, V3,

61/T3

Cardiac valves which have half-mooned shaped cusps would be considered which of the following?

1. Pulmonic valves

2. Tricuspid valves

3. Mitral valves

4. Both B and C

Pulmonic valves

1. AV valves = Tricuspid / Mitral valves

   1. Semilunar = Pulmonic /Aortic valves

62/T3

The recovery period for the ventricle conductive fibers is represented by which of the following?

1. U wave

2. T wave

3. QT interval

4. QRS complex

U wave

= The recovery period for the Ventricle conductive fibers (=Purkinje fibers and bundle branches)

63/T3

The correct range for the rate for atrial tachycardia would be considered which of the following?

1. 150-250 bpm

2. 80-100 bpm

3. 150-300 bpm

4. 150-180 bpm

150-250 bpm

Atrial tachycardia = 150-250 bpm

67/T3

Which of the following would not be considered a primary characteristic of a cardiac cell?

1. Conductivity

2. Automaticity

3. Communicatability

4. Contractility

Communicatability

(Primary characteristics relevant to cardiac cells are

• conductivity

• automaticity

• contractility

• excitability)