(MB) ASCP Practice Exam Questions

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100 Terms

1
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Which of the following is not a component of a nucleotide?

Phosphate group

Anti-codon

Ribose sugar

Nitrogen base

Anti-codon

2
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According to Chargaff's rule of base pairing, adenine pairs with:

Thymine

3
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What genes would be screened in a breast cancer panel?

HER2, ERBB2, BRCA1

4
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Next Generation Sequencing uses:

Short sequence reads

5
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Purines and pyrimidines differ from each other in that:

Purines have two rings; pyrimidines have one ring

6
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The purines are:

Cytosine and uracil

Adenine and thymine

Thymine and cytosine

Adenine and guanine

Adenine and guanine

7
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What is the rate of mutation per round of DNA replication?

1 in 1,000 base pairs

1 in 10,000 base pairs

1 in 1,000,000 base pairs

1 in 1,000,000,000 base pairs

1 in 1,000,000,000 base pairs

8
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The rate of DNA migration through an agarose gel during electrophoresis does not depend on which of the following factors?

Net charge of the molecule

Size of the molecule

Shape of the molecule

Nucleotide sequence of the molecule

Nucleotide sequence of the molecule

9
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What are the phases in a qPCR Amplification Plot?

Initiation, exponential, plateau

Baseline, exponential, plateau

Baseline, threshold, exponential, plateau

Baseline, initiation, threshold, exponential, plateau

Initiation, exponential, plateau

10
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Find the palindrome in this restriction enzyme site: 5'-CTGCAG-3'?

5'-GAC

3'-GAC

3'-CTG

5'-GTC

3'-GAC

11
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A patient with impaired judgment, personality changes, signs of abnormal body movements and depression comes to the physician's office for a follow-up visit. The physician suspects a single-gene disorder may be the cause of those clinical manifestations. A blood specimen was then sent to your clinical laboratory for mutation screening in the Huntington gene. Testing with standard PCR indicates that patient has Huntington Disease, HD. Which of the following would be consistent with this diagnosis?

25 CAG repeats in the Huntington gene

85 CAG repeats in the Huntington gene

25 CGA repeats in the Huntington gene

85 CGA repeats in the Huntington gene

85 CAG repeats in the Huntington gene

12
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Which two HPV types are responsible for most cases of cervical cancer?

16 and 18

31 and 59

16 and 58

44 and 59

16 and 18

13
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Replication forks, known as origins of DNA replication, are created by this enzyme:

Ligase

Taq Polymerase

Primase

Helicase

Helicase

14
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Mutation in what gene is associated with Fragile X syndrome?

FMR1

15
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Mantle cell lymphoma (MCL) is caused by what translocation?

t(11;14)

16
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This polymerase is involved in "initiation of DNA replication and has primase activity":

Pol α

17
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Its discovery shed light on why there is simultaneous, though not continuous, synthesis of DNA on both leading and lagging strands of DNA:

Klenow fragment of DNA polymerase

Okazaki fragments

Sanger fragments

RNA fragments

Okazaki fragments

18
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What gene is measured following treatment with imatinib (Gleevec)?

FLT3

BCR/Abl

Jak2

MAPK

BCR/Abl

19
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What is the rate of mammalian DNA replication?

500 nucleotides per second

100 nucleotides per second

50 nucleotides per second

10 nucleotides per second

50 nucleotides per second

20
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This polymerase is involved in "replicates mitochondrial DNA":

Pol γ

21
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A patient with impaired judgment, personality changes, signs of abnormal body movements and depression comes to the physician's office for a follow-up visit. The physician suspects a single-gene disorder may be the cause of those clinical manifestations. A blood specimen was then sent to your clinical laboratory for mutation screening in the Huntingtin gene. Which of these methods would best accomplish this task?

Methylation-specific PCR

Standard PCR

PFGE

RAPD PCR

Standard PCR

22
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Which of the following storage options is optimal for storing isolated DNA for a period greater than seven years?

22-25ºC

2-8ºC

-20ºC

-70ºC

-70ºC

23
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Consider a hypothetical mutation involving gene X. Let's say you amplify a specific exon, say exon 11, of that gene then you cut it with restriction enzyme W. In a person without the mutation, cutting the gene with restriction enzyme W generates two fragments of sizes, 100 bp and 250 bp. Suppose a C>T mutation in gene X deletes a restriction site, yielding a fragment of 350 bp. You would expect a heterozygous person for gene X to have these fragments on a restriction gel:

+/+ = 350 bp; 250 bp; 100 bp;

m/+ = Only the 350 bp

m/+ = 350 bp; 250 bp; 100 bp

m/m = 350 bp; 250 bp

m/+ = 350 bp; 250 bp; 100 bp

24
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Which of the following will more likely lower stringency conditions in the washing step of a hybridization experiment?

Increase the concentration of salt in the wash solution buffer

Increase the temperature from, say 68°C to 75°C

Use a probe with a higher density of GC base pairs as compared to one with a lower GC base pair density

Remove formamide from the wash solution buffer

Increase the concentration of salt in the wash solution buffer

25
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What enzyme is involved in LCR?

DNA Ligase

26
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Next Generation Sequencing set-up require:

Library preparation and extensive bioinformatics analysis

BAC clones

Use of translation factors

Hybridization

Library preparation and extensive bioinformatics analysis

27
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Which of the subunits of RNA polymerase holoenzyme is responsible for promoter recognition?

Beta subunit

Sigma subunit

Gamma subunit

Delta subunit

Sigma subunit

28
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While at the doctor's office with your father, you overheard his physician tell another physician that test results came in, confirming the presence of the Factor V Leiden mutation, a mutation associated with deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following is the mutation your father has:

A1691G

G1619A

1691G>A

C282Y

1691G>A

29
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Consider the probe sequence, CTACCGTAATATTCGACCGT, to be used in a hybridization procedure. What is the melting temperature, Tm, of the sequence?

60°C

58°C

64°C

62°C

58°C

30
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This polymerase acts on DNA and produces Ribosomal RNA:

RNA Pol I

DNA Pol I

RNA Pol II

DNA Pol II

RNA Pol I

31
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Sickle cell disease is an autosomal genetic disease due to a point mutation in the beta-globin gene, where glutamic acid is substituted for valine at the sixth codon of the gene, resulting in a faulty hemoglobin S (Hb S). Sickle cell disease is one of many genetic diseases where a single gene controls the expression of many phenotypic traits. The phenomenon where a single gene controls the expression of many phenotypic traits is best referred to as:

Pleiotrophy

32
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What assay amplifies the target using a combination of a three-enzyme system?

Branched DNA

TMA

PCR

NASBA

LCR

NASBA

33
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In what part of a qPCR Amplification Plot do you take your measurement?

Exponential phase

34
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All of the following are liquid tumors, except:

Mantle cell lymphoma

Ewing sarcoma

Burkitt's lymphoma

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

Ewing sarcoma

35
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A technologist uses the spectrophotometer to quantify the amount of DNA extracted from a blood specimen diluted 1:30. The absorbance reading at 260 nm was found to be 2.545. If the absorbance at 280 nm gave a reading of 1.406, and if the the DNA extract was re-suspended in 0.800 mL of EDTA solution, the DNA yield is:

(2.545 * 50ng/mcl)= 127.25

(127.25ng/mcl * 0.30) = 38.175ng/mcl

38.175ng/mcl ( 0.800mL1000) =

3054 micrograms

36
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According to the wobble hypothesis, a U in the 5' position of the anit-codon can pair with:

U or C

A or G

A, C or G

Only A

A or G

37
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This polymerase acts on DNA and produces Messenger RNA:

RNA Pol II

38
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What assay amplifies the probe signal and the probe RNA concentration increases if the target to be detected is present?

Branched DNA

TMA

PCR

NASBA

LCR

Qβ replicase

Qβ replicase

39
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This restriction enzyme "digests and adds a methyl group from Adenine":

Type I

Type II

Type III

DNase I

Type III

40
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What increases the half-life of mRNA?

5' Methyl Cap

3' Methyl Cap

Poly-A tail

5' Methionine Cap

5' Methyl Cap

41
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A parent has an autosomal dominant disorder. What percent chance does this parent have to pass down this affected gene to his/her child?

0%

25%

50%

75%

100%

50%

42
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The phrase "central dogma of molecular biology" refers to the flow of genetic data in this manner:

DNA --> RNA --> Proteins

DNA -->Proteins --> Genes

RNA --> DNA --> Proteins

RNA --> Proteins --> DNA

DNA --> RNA --> Proteins

43
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What drug is NOT metabolized by CYP2D6?

Codeine

Omeprazole

Warfarin

Escitalopram

Warfarin

44
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You have sequenced a gene and observe the following:

Reference: atgctggcacgacaggtttcccgactgg

Sequenced: atgCctggcacgacaggtttcccgactgg

The mutation observed is a:

Frame-shift mutation

Insertion

Silent mutation

Non-conservative mutation

Frame-shift mutation

45
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A parent has an autosomal recessive disorder. What percent chance does this parent have to pass down this affected gene to his/her child?

0%

25%

50%

75%

100%

100%

46
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Which DNA polymerase is responsible for copying DNA by reading existing strand, building new complementary strand and always adds to 3' end, but can't start a new strand on its own (ORI sites)?

DNA Polymerase III

DNA Polymerase I

Gyrase

None of the choices listed

DNA Polymerase III

47
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How many log10 reductions in HIV viral load is considered to be successful upon treatment?

0.5log10

1log10

2log10

3log10

0.5log10

48
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of a tRNA molecule?

D arm

Beta arm

T arm

Anti-codon arm

Beta arm

49
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This translocation creates a fusion protein between the Abl1 gene on one chromosome and the BCR gene on the other chromosome, resulting in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML):

t(9;22)

50
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What stain binds to minor groove of DNA Duplex?

SYBR1

51
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Which of the following best characterizes a vector?

helps carry DNA into cell ie plasmids, virus

allows formation of double-stranded molecules

initiates replication during PCR

decodes mRNA

helps carry DNA into cell ie plasmids, virus

52
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Between which phosphate groups is the linkage between the GTP molecule and RNA chain in the 5' cap?

Beta-beta

Alpha-gamma

Gamma-beta

Alpha-beta

Alpha-beta

53
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This restriction enzyme "digests and removes a methyl group from Adenine":

Type I

Type II

Type III

DNase I

Type I

54
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Primer dimers are due to what complimentary issue?

3' to 3' complementarity of primer pairs

3' to 5' complementarity of primer pairs

5' to 5' complementarity of primer pairs

5' to 3' complementarity of primer pairs

3' to 3' complementarity of primer pairs

55
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The hydroxyl group in a deoxyribonucleotide is expected to be found on which position of the sugar?

C1'

C2'

C3'

C4'

C3'

56
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Nucleic acid hybridization methods can be affected by a host of factors. Select all the factors that that can influence this process.

G:C ratio of bases

pH of the hybridization reaction

Hybridization temperature

All of the above

All of the above

57
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A technologist uses the spectrophotometer to quantify the amount of DNA extracted from a blood specimen diluted 1:30. The absorbance reading at 260 nm was found to be 2.545. The concentration of DNA in this extract is:

76.35 micrograms/mL

3817.5 micrograms/mL

381.75 micrograms/mL

3054.0 micrograms/mL

3817.5 micrograms/mL

58
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Mutation in UGT1A1 affects metabolism of what drug?

Ironotecan

59
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Testing for HOXB13, BRCA1 and BCRA2 is usually done in patients with:

Prostate cancer

60
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RT-PCR can be used to quantify messenger RNA (mRNA) among other uses. All of the following concerning RT-PCR are true, EXCEPT:

RT-PCR is useful in detecting RNA-viruses, such as HIV

RT-PCR uses alkaline phosphatase to reverse amplify the signal

RT-PCR produces cDNA using RNA templates

RT-PCR uses alkaline phosphatase to reverse amplify the signal

61
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Southern blot can be used for all of the following purposes, except:

Paternity testing

Chromosomal staining

Gene discovery and mapping

Mutation analysis and identification

Chromosomal staining

62
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If a woman is infected with the HPV virus, which of the following parameters increases her risk of developing cervical cancer?

A vegetarian diet

Never having been pregnant

Obesity

Smoking

Smoking

63
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Which of the following is not a common hydrogen bond acceptor?

A carbonyl

Primary amine

Hydroxyl

Tertiary amine

Primary amine

64
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T-Cell Gene Rearrangement is seen in what malignancy?

Sézary syndrome

Burkitt's lymphoma

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

Polycythemia vera

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma

65
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The t(11;22) translocation is responsible for:

Ewing sarcoma

66
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In CML, what fusion protein is created?

EWS-FLI1

EWS-PAR2

BCR-Abl1

c-myc-IGH

BCR-Abl1

67
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As a technologist working in a small clinical laboratory, a nasal swab specimen, suspected to be colonized by a variety of upper respiratory viruses, came to your laboratory. You are tasked with determining whether the specimen is colonized with rhinovirus, coronavirus, and influenza. Which PCR method would best be suitable for this task?

Nested PCR

Real-time PCR

NASBA

Multiplex PCR

Multiplex PCR

68
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All of the following methods of amplification are considered target amplification, except:

Quantitative PCR

NASBA

Strand Displacement Amplification

Reverse Transcriptase PCR

NASBA

69
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Which of the following reagents will successfully decontaminate a bench top that has been exposed to DNA amplification products?

70% Ethanol

5% Bleach

100% Isopropanol

10% Methanol

5% Bleach

70
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All of the following are components of nucleic acids, EXCEPT:

Phosphate group

Sugar (ribose or deoxyribose)

Nitrogenous base (A, G, C, T)

Formamide

Formamide

71
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The amelogenin locus, found on the sex chromosomes, is used in gender identification. Amplification at this locus reveals 2 peaks of sizes 212 and 218 base pairs. If this amplification were part of a gender identification procedure, what would be the gender of the individual?

Male

Female

Hermaphrodite

Can't be determined from the given information

Male

72
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What assay amplifies the target using DNA polymerase?

Branched DNA

TMA

PCR

NASBA

LCR

PCR

73
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During DNA replication, the 3' -OH of the growing DNA chain attacks which phosphate of an incoming nucleotide?

Alpha

Beta

Gamma

Delta

Beta

74
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What gene is measured following treatment with Warfarin?

FLT3

VKORC1

MAPK

P53

VKORC1

75
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The process of making proteins is termed:

Replication

Translation

Transcription

Sequencing

Translation

76
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How many polymorphisms can be found in the human genome?

Approximately 10 million

Approximately 100 thousand

Approximately 1 billion

Approximately 1 million

Approximately 10 million

77
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This highly polymorphic loci region is crucial in assessing immune system compatibility:

VNTRs

HLA

SINES

SNPs

HLA

78
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Given the anti-sense strand of DNA: 5'-AATTGCCGACATAGAT-3' which is the appropriate sense strand?

5'-ATCTATGTCGGCAATT-3'

5'-TTAACGGCTGTATCTA-3'

5'-AATTGCCGACATAGAT-3'

5'-GAGCACGCTATCTTAT-3'

5'-ATCTATGTCGGCAATT-3'

79
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Mutations in the CFTR gene is associated with what disease?

Fragile X

Cystic Fibrosis

Sickle-cell anemia

Mantle Cell Lymphoma

Cystic Fibrosis

80
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The mother of a 3 year old boy took him to the doctor's office for concerns of an underlying genetic condition. A karyotype order was sent to the Molecular Diagnostic lab. Karyotype results show 47, XY,+21. Based on these results, the boy has:

Patau Syndrome

Down Syndrome

Edward Syndrome

Cri du chat Syndrome

Down Syndrome

81
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In real-time PCR, what is amplified?

The target

The signal

The probe

All of the above

The target

82
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When sequencing HLA-DR what is targeted?

Exon 1 of the α subunit

Exon 2 of the α subunit

Exon 1 of the β subunit

Exon 2 of the β subunit

Exon 2 of the β subunit

83
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What is the rate of DNA translation?

80 nucleotides per second

200 nucleotides per second

60 nucleotides per second

40 nucleotides per second

60 nucleotides per second

84
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This PCR method works by generating a signal at the annealing step (i.e. when the probe binds its target) of the PCR reaction:

FRET probes

Scorpion primers

Molecular beacons

Taqman

Molecular beacons

85
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What is the most common mutation in Hemochromatosis?

1691G>A

F508del

R506Q

C282Y

C282Y

86
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Mutation in this gene (Xp21) is associated with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy:

Dystrophin

P53

Musculin

C-myc

Dystrophin

87
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What is the sequence recognized by poly (A) polymerase?

TATAAA

CAA

CCCGAA

AAUAAA

AAUAAA

88
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Splicing is the process that does which of the following?

Remove exons and preserve introns

Remove introns and preserve exons

Remove mutated regions of primary transcript RNA (tRNA)?

Add a poly-A tail to the end of a primary RNA transcript?

Remove introns and preserve exons

89
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Which of the following statements are characteristics of the melt curve analysis? (hint: more than one answer)

-At the melting point, the probe separates from the target strand and fluorescence rapidly decreases.

-The melting temperature of double stranded DNA depends on its base composition and length.

-All PCR products for a specific primer pair should have the same melting temperature.

-When hybridization probes are utilized, the temperature is incrementally decreased while fluorescence is monitored.

-At the melting point, the probe separates from the target strand and fluorescence rapidly decreases.

-The melting temperature of double stranded DNA depends on its base composition and length.

-All PCR products for a specific primer pair should have the same melting temperature.

90
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Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) is responsible for what translocation?

t(15;17)

91
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What genes would be screened in a colorectal panel?

KRAS, BRAF, PIK3CA

HER2, ERBB2, BRCA1

KRAS, EGFR, ALK

MSH2, PMS2, EPCAM

KRAS, BRAF, PIK3CA

92
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What responds poorly to Ribavarin/Interferon treatment?

HCV type 1

HCV type 2

HCV type 3

HCV type 4

HCV type 1 & 4

HCV type 2 & 3

HCV type 1 & 4

93
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If two parents are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive disease, then their offspring will most likely follow this gene frequency pattern:

-25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, and 25% homozygous recessive

-50% homozygous dominant, and 50% homozygous recessive

-100% homozygous for the dominant phenotype

-100% homozygous for the recessive phenotype

25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, and 25% homozygous recessive

94
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This polymerase acts on DNA and produces Transfer RNA:

RNA Pol II

DNA Pol II

RNA Pol III

DNA Pol III

RNA Pol III

95
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What assay is a signal amplification test and uses Alkaline Phosphatase?

Branched DNA

TMA

PCR

NASBA

LCR

Branched DNA

96
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What genes would be screened in a lung cancer panel?

KRAS, BRAF, PIK3CA

HER2, ERBB2, BRCA1

KRAS, EGFR, ALK

MSH2, PMS2, EPCAM

KRAS, EGFR, ALK

97
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Which of the following molecular methodologies would be the best for detecting a trinucleotide repeat disorder such as Huntington's disease?

Heteroduplex analysis

Variable number tandem repeat analysis

Single strand conformation polymorphism analysis

Reverse-Transcriptase PCR

Variable number tandem repeat analysis

98
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Which method would best be used to detect the Leiden mutation?

PCR-RFLP

bDNA amplification

PFGE

Ribotyping

PCR-RFLP

99
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Which of the following is not a step in the Southern blot procedure?

DNA digest with restriction enzymes

Gel resolution of fragments

Fragments denaturation

Probe digest

Probe digest

100
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Bone marrow transplantation is a great method used to treat several malignant and benign cancers, particularly leukemias. Before transplantation (or engraftment analysis), several polymorphic loci are screened in both the recipient and donor cells. The main goal of this screening is to:

-find at least one or more informative loci between both the donor and recipient

-find exactly ten informative loci between both the donor and recipient

-find all the non-informative loci between both the donor and recipient

-find the blood type/group of both the donor and recipient

find at least one or more informative loci between both the donor and recipient