Fitness Assesment Exam 1 general review

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50 Terms

1
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The normal shape of the P wave is

upright

3 multiple choice options

2
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What is the definition of a Second-Degree AV Block Type I

Reflected on the ECG by a progressive lengthening of the PR interval, then dropped QRS

3
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Wolf Parkinson White (WPW) is characterized by

A congenital bypass tract known as a bundle of kent

delta waves

4
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Which of the answers below is a cause of T wave inversion?

ischemia

3 multiple choice options

5
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what is the shape of a normal t wave

upright

3 multiple choice options

6
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What are the criteria for a left bundle branch block

wide QRS complex > 0.12 seconds.

Broad (typically notched in lead I, aVL, V5, V6)

R wave with prolonged upstroke in leads V5, V6, I and aVL with ST segment depression and T wave inversion

7
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Second Degree AV Block Type II requires a permanent pacemaker due to its ability to possibly progress suddenly to a BLANK with little or no warning

Third Degree AV block

3 multiple choice options

8
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Which arrhythmia below is described as ectopic beats of ventricular origin with a rate of >50 and <100 bpm? No visible P waves

Accelerated idioventricular rhythm

3 multiple choice options

9
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Atrial Flutter is common after heart surgery

True

1 multiple choice option

10
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Which of the following may trigger atrial fibrillation?

alcoholism

3 multiple choice options

11
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The normal duration for the QT interval is BLANK seconds

0.36-0.44

12
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Which of the following is a complication from atrial fibrillation?

blood clot or thrombi

3 multiple choice options

13
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Which of the following is the first drug of choice for treating symptomatic bradycardia?

atropine

3 multiple choice options

14
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Atropine works to BLANK conduction through the AV node

improve

3 multiple choice options

15
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persistent sinus tachycardia is a concern due to it causing

decreased cardiac output due to decreased ventricular filling time

heart failure

16
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common causes of sinus bradycardia include all of the following except

anxiety

3 multiple choice options

17
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what is the definition of ventricular tachycardia

originates in an ectopic pacemaker site in the ventricles at a rate of 120-200 beats/minute

3 multiple choice options

18
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BLANK originates in an ectopic pacemaker site in the atria producing a rapid, regular atrial rhythm between 140 and 250 beats per minutes.

paroxysmal atrial tachycardia

19
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what are the criteria for a Right Bundle Branch Block

Wide QRS with a duration of > 0.12 seconds in V1.

rSr (Notched) pattern in V1 and V2.

Inverted T wave; strain pattern or inverted T waves may be present in right chest leads.

Wide S wave in lead I and v6

20
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The most common indication for pacemaker implantation is

slow heart rate

3 multiple choice options

21
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what is significant ST elevation and indication of?

myocardial infarction

3 multiple choice options

22
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Hypocalcemia causes which abnormality on the ECG?

Prolonged QT interval

23
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Which rhythm below is characterized by a pacemaker site that shifts back and forth between the sinus node and multiple atrial sites, causing differences in P wave configuration? The distinguishing characteristic of this rhythm is the changing P waves, which vary in size, shape, or direction across the test strip. The PR interval remains the same.

Wandering atrial pacemaker

3 multiple choice options

24
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The primary pacemaker of the heart is the SA node, which has an intrinsic rate of BLANK

60 - 100 bpm

3 multiple choice options

25
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What are the criteria for Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome?

Slurred upstroke on QRS (Delta wave), creating a wide QRS and short PR interval; caused by bundle of Kent.

3 multiple choice options

26
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Cause of premature atrial contraction

hypertension

27
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Therapeutic levels of the drug Digitalis cause which abnormality on the ECG?

ST segment depression with a gradual slope

28
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Which of the criteria below is a criterion for hyperkalemia on the ECG?

Peaked T waves that are greater than 2/3 the height of the R wave

3 multiple choice options

29
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Which of the following statements about ST depression is NOT true?

The more upsloping the depression is the more likely it is due to blockage

3 multiple choice options

30
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A significant Q wave will be a sign of a past MI. What is the criteria for a significant Q wave?

One third to one half the height of the R wave and

greater than one box wide

31
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Common causes of sinus tachycardia include all of the following except

heart failure

32
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Epinephrine works to increase the heart rate by causing

vasoconstriction

3 multiple choice options

33
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The intrinsic rate of the atrioventricular node is:

40 - 60 bpm

3 multiple choice options

34
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What is the definition of a Third Degree AV block?

There is no conduction of impulses from the atria into the ventricles

35
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what is the definition of Atrial Fibrillation?

A rapid and highly irregular heart rhythm originating in an ectopic site in the atria

3 multiple choice options

36
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Which arrythmia has ectopic beats of ventricular origin

with a rate of > 50 and < 100 bpms and no visible P waves?

Acceleration idioventricular rhythm

3 multiple choice options

37
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Hypokalemia has which of the following changes on the

ECG

Appearance of a U wave

3 multiple choice options

38
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What is the definition of a Second Degree AV Type II?

failure of some of the sinus impulses to be conducted to the ventricles (dropped QRS)

39
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What is significant ST depression an indication of?

ischemia

3 multiple choice options

40
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What is the definition of Ventricular Fibrillation

quivering of the ventricles. No QRS complexes. Lethal rhythm

41
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What is the definition of Torsades de Pointes?

Usually seen in patients with prolonged QT intervals; QRS complexes spiral around baseline

3 multiple choice options

42
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What is the definition of a Premature Atrial Contraction?

Premature ectopic beat arising somewhere other than the SA node. Characterized by an abnormal P wave

3 multiple choice options

43
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The best exercise to evaluate the pacemaker is:

Treadmill

3 multiple choice options

44
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Which is the most common sensor method used to detect

the need for increasing the heart rate?

Vibration and acceleration

3 multiple choice options

45
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What is the definition of Atrial Flutter?

originates in an ectopic pacemaker site in the atria, depolarizing at a rate of 250-350 beats/minute

3 multiple choice options

46
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ST elevation or depression is considered abnormal if the

displacement is equal to or greater than ____ mm from

baseline.

1

3 multiple choice options

47
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Tall R waves in V1 and V2 being equal to or greater than

7 mm and a right ventricular strain pattern evident in V1

and V2 are twin of the criteria for:

Right ventricular hypertrophy

3 multiple choice options

48
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What is the definition of a First-degree AV block?

delay in the conduction at the AV node of HIS bundle

3 multiple choice options

49
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The S wave in V1 and V2 plus the R wave in V5 or V6 being greater than or equal to 35mm is a criteria for:

Left Ventricular Hypertrophy

3 multiple choice options

50
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Epinephrine is the first drug of choice for treatment of ventricular tachycardia?

False

  • amiodarone, beta blockers