Disorders of the Nasal Cavity – Small Animals

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68 question-and-answer flashcards covering causes, clinical signs, diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis of major nasal cavity disorders in small animals, based on the lecture notes provided.

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67 Terms

1
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What pathogen causes feline viral rhinotracheitis (FVR)?

Feline herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1).

2
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Which two viruses account for roughly 90 % of feline upper respiratory infections?

Feline herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1) and feline calicivirus (FCV).

3
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Name three bacterial agents that can contribute to feline upper respiratory infection.

Chlamydophila felis, Bordetella bronchiseptica, and Mycoplasma spp.

4
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List three routes by which feline upper respiratory viruses are transmitted.

Aerosol, direct contact, and fomites.

5
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What type of cats can shed upper-respiratory viruses without clinical signs?

Subclinical carrier cats.

6
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Give three systemic clinical signs of feline upper respiratory infection.

Inappetence, lethargy, and fever.

7
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Which virus commonly produces oral and nasal ulcers in cats?

Feline calicivirus (FCV).

8
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Which feline virus typically causes dendritic corneal ulcers?

Feline herpesvirus-1 (FHV-1).

9
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In feline URI, which virus is more often associated with viral pneumonia?

Feline calicivirus (FCV).

10
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What ulcer pattern on fluorescein stain is characteristic of FHV infection?

A dendritic (branching) corneal ulcer.

11
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What oral lesion is a hallmark of acute FCV infection?

Vesicles that progress to ulcers on the tongue, palate, or nasal commissure.

12
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Which pathogen is best known for causing chronic conjunctivitis in cats?

Chlamydophila felis.

13
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Are laboratory tests routinely required to diagnose feline URI?

No; diagnosis is usually clinical and lab tests are not routinely needed.

14
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Which antibiotic is preferred to treat Bordetella, Chlamydophila, and Mycoplasma in feline URI?

Doxycycline.

15
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Name two topical antivirals used for FHV keratitis.

Trifluridine and idoxuridine.

16
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Is oral lysine supplementation effective against FHV-1?

No; systematic reviews show no preventive or therapeutic benefit.

17
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State two key preventive measures for feline upper respiratory disease.

Avoidance of exposure and vaccination.

18
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After the kitten series, how often should FHV/FCV boosters be given?

Annually and then every three years (per current guidelines).

19
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Does FHV/FCV vaccination prevent infection?

No; it reduces disease severity but does not prevent infection.

20
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Nasopharyngeal polyps are most common in which age group of cats?

Kittens and young cats.

21
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Nasopharyngeal polyps usually originate from which structure?

The auditory (Eustachian) tube (middle ear).

22
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Give three clinical signs associated with nasopharyngeal polyps.

Stertorous breathing, upper-airway obstruction, and mucopurulent nasal discharge (others: otitis media, head tilt, nystagmus, Horner’s syndrome).

23
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What radiographic finding supports a diagnosis of nasopharyngeal polyp?

Soft-tissue opacity dorsal to the soft palate, with or without bulla involvement.

24
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What is the definitive diagnostic method for a nasopharyngeal polyp?

Histopathology of the removed tissue.

25
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What is the recurrence rate after oral traction–avulsion of nasopharyngeal polyps?

Approximately 33 %.

26
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Which surgical procedure lowers recurrence when the tympanic bulla is involved?

Ventral bulla osteotomy.

27
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What transient neurologic syndrome may follow polyp removal?

Horner’s syndrome.

28
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Overall prognosis after complete removal of nasopharyngeal polyps?

Excellent, provided all polyp tissue is removed.

29
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What nasal tumour type is most common in dogs?

Adenocarcinoma (a type of carcinoma).

30
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Which tumour most frequently affects the feline nasal cavity?

Lymphoma.

31
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Name two other canine nasal tumours besides adenocarcinoma.

Poorly differentiated carcinoma, fibrosarcoma, or chondrosarcoma (any two).

32
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Which skull conformation is predisposed to nasal tumours?

Dolichocephalic (long-nosed) breeds.

33
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What is the most common clinical sign of a nasal tumour?

Chronic nasal discharge.

34
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Is nasal tumour discharge initially unilateral or bilateral?

Often unilateral, but may progress to bilateral.

35
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Name two imaging modalities commonly used for diagnosing nasal tumours.

Skull radiography and computed tomography (CT).

36
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What test is required for definitive diagnosis of a nasal tumour?

Histopathology of a biopsy sample.

37
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Median survival time for dogs with nasal tumours treated with radiation?

Approximately 13 months.

38
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List two treatment options other than radiation for nasal tumours.

Surgery and chemotherapy (also NSAIDs/analgesia).

39
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Which fungal organism most commonly causes nasal mycosis in cats?

Cryptococcus neoformans (and C. gattii).

40
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List four body systems commonly affected by feline cryptococcosis.

Nasal cavity, central nervous system, eyes, and skin/subcutaneous tissues.

41
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Which laboratory test detects the cryptococcal polysaccharide capsule antigen?

Latex agglutination capsular antigen test.

42
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Reported sensitivity and specificity of the cryptococcal antigen test in cats?

Approximately 95 % sensitivity and 100 % specificity.

43
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Which azole is preferred for cryptococcosis with CNS or ocular involvement?

Fluconazole.

44
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Standard duration of antifungal therapy for cryptococcosis?

6–12 months and at least 2 months beyond clinical resolution.

45
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What antigen-titer trend indicates a good prognosis in cryptococcosis?

A 10-fold decrease over two months.

46
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Is direct pet-to-human transmission of Cryptococcus likely?

No; environmental exposure is considered the main risk.

47
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Which fungus causes canine sinonasal aspergillosis?

Aspergillus fumigatus.

48
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Which demographic of dogs is most often affected by sinonasal aspergillosis?

Young male dogs.

49
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What external nasal lesion is characteristic of sinonasal aspergillosis?

Depigmentation and ulceration of the external nares.

50
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Name three diagnostic tools for sinonasal aspergillosis.

CT imaging, rhinoscopy, and histopathology (others: fungal culture, serology).

51
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Which serologic method has higher specificity for Aspergillus antibodies, AGID or ELISA?

Agar-gel immunodiffusion (AGID) with ~100 % specificity.

52
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Efficacy rate of topical clotrimazole infusion in treating sinonasal aspergillosis?

About 85–90 % cure rate.

53
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Is cribriform plate lysis an absolute contraindication to topical clotrimazole?

No; studies show it can be used safely in neurologically normal dogs.

54
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Which oral antifungal is <70 % effective for sinonasal aspergillosis?

Itraconazole (when used alone).

55
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Give two common plant materials that can become nasal foreign bodies.

Foxtails and pine needles (others: grass awns, straw, mulch, twigs).

56
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Is bacterial rhinitis usually a primary or secondary problem?

Secondary to another nasal disorder.

57
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Name two underlying conditions that can lead to secondary bacterial rhinitis.

Nasal tumour, fungal infection, foreign body, or dental disease.

58
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Which mite species causes canine nasal mite infestations?

Pneumonyssoides caninum.

59
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What larval parasite genus can form nasal warbles in small animals?

Cuterebra spp.

60
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Inflammatory rhinitis is primarily diagnosed by what principle?

Diagnosis of exclusion based on histopathology and ruling out other causes.

61
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List two drug classes that may help manage inflammatory rhinitis.

Antibiotics such as doxycycline/azithromycin and corticosteroids (also NSAIDs).

62
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Post-anaesthetic reflux can lead to which structural nasal disorder?

Nasopharyngeal stenosis.

63
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Chronic upper respiratory infection is a risk factor for which nasopharyngeal condition?

Nasopharyngeal stenosis.

64
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Is Aspergillus fumigatus a normal inhabitant of canine nasal mucosa?

Yes; it is normally present but can become pathogenic.

65
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Does sinonasal aspergillosis respond well to systemic antifungals alone?

Generally no; topical therapy is preferred for highest cure rates.

66
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Name two supportive care measures important in treating feline URI.

Nutritional support and fluid therapy (plus TLC).

67
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Which broad-spectrum antibiotics may be used to control secondary bacterial infections in feline URI?

Ampicillin or amoxicillin (others: doxycycline, azithromycin).