Dirigo Phase I Test

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173 Terms

1
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Professionalism for law enforcement includes which of the following?

All of the above.

2
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The Law Enforcement Code of Ethics has been replaced by the Oath of Honor.

False

3
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Rookie officers demonstrate misconduct resulting in decertification more often than officers with 5+ years of service.

False

4
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As an operational issue, through policies and practices agencies can support or erode officers’ integrity.

True

5
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The Code of Silence:

Creates a common ethical dilemma between loyalty and integrity.

6
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Which of the following are potential negative consequences of unethical behavior?

All of the above.

7
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“Ethical fitness” requires an officer to:

Think through important issues on a regular basis.

8
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Officers can maintain their integrity over time by:

Staying conscious of the Continuum of Compromise.

9
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The underlying factors that most often cause officers to behave unethically include:

All of the above.

10
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The LEPS training program requires students to meet all the following standards except:

A polygraph examination

11
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For students to advance into Phase 2 of the LEPS training program, they must pass which of the following:

Written examinations and a physical fitness test

12
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When students have a question relating to law or enforcement of the laws, they should turn to:

All of the above.

13
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LEPS training program graduates must meet several additional standards to become certified full-time law enforcement officers in Maine, including all the following except:

Pass a series of interviews with Maine Criminal Justice Academy staff

14
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Law enforcement discretion is a tool that allows an officer to decide between different and reasonable outcomes for a given situation.

True

15
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Which of the following would have an impact on an officer’s use of discretion in fully enforcing the laws?

-Excuses

-Dictates of the Community

-Friendship

-Politics

Dictates of the Community

16
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Which of the following appropriately influences officer discretion?

-Offender factors such as the age of the offender

-incident factors such as the seriousness of the crime

-Personal Values

-A and B Only

A and B Only

17
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Consequences to the officer for the inappropriate use of discretion include:

All of the above.

18
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The Fourth Amendment of the United States Constitution protects citizens from:

Unreasonable searches and seizures

19
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Evidence obtained by law enforcement using methods that violate a person’s Constitutional rights is not admissible in a criminal prosecution against that person. This procedural requirement is called:

The Exclusionary Rule

20
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_______________ is defined as facts and circumstances within the law enforcement officer’s knowledge and of which the officer had reasonably trustworthy information are sufficient in themselves to warrant a person of reasonable caution in the belief that seizable property would be found in a particular place or on a particular person.

Probable cause to search

21
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Generally and if possible, law enforcement officers should obtain a search warrant prior to conducting a search.

True

22
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What is a search warrant?

All of the above.

23
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Grounds for issuing a search warrant include which of the following:

All of the above.

24
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To obtain a search warrant, a law enforcement officer must do which of the following?

Complete an Affidavit and Request for Search Warrant form, and Make the request to a District Court Judge or authorized justice of the peace.

25
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The ____________ requirement for search warrants requires that the place to be searched and things to be seized be articulated in detail.

Particularity

26
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When executing a search warrant, a law enforcement officer will do all the following except:

-Execute the warrant in the daytime

-Gain entry though a “knock and announce”

-Execute the warrant within 10 days

-Bring representatives of the media along

-Only use the amount of force that is responsible under all the circumstances. 

Bring representatives of the media along. 

27
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A law enforcement officer executing a search warrant may only seize items that are specifically listed in the warrant.

False

28
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A law enforcement officer may only search the area or space into which the smallest item named in the search warrant would fit.

True

29
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After executing a search warrant, the law enforcement officer must do which of the following:

All of the above.

30
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Exceptions to the search warrant requirement include which of the following:

All of the above.

31
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A law enforcement officer may only engage in a consent search if the person granting permission is the sole owner of the property.

False

32
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Under the _____ Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, a citizen may not be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against him/herself.

Fifth

33
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Protection of the right to counsel is found in the ______ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

Sixth

34
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An ____________ is a statement or acknowledgement of facts by a person tending to incriminate, but not enough in itself to establish guilt for a crime.

Admission

35
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A statement or acknowledgement of facts by a person establishing that person’s guilt of all elements of a crime is referred to as a ____________.

Confession

36
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In __________________, the United States Supreme Court established that subjects of custodial interrogation must be explained their Constitutional rights under the 5th and 6th Amendments of the U.S. Constitution.

Miranda V. Arizona

37
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When must a law enforcement officer state the Miranda warnings to an individual?

During a custodial interrogation. 

38
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If an individual request an attorney during questioning, it is the law enforcement officer’s duty to cease asking questions and make the call.

False

39
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A law enforcement officer who conducts a search and/or seizure in violation of a person’s Constitutional rights may face:

All of the above.

40
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According to Maine law, law enforcement officers are required to electronically record interrogations in all serious crimes.

True

41
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Law enforcement officers may not arrest for a civil violation.

True

42
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Under the Maine Criminal Code, which of the following is true regarding the classification of crimes?

Crimes are classified as Class A, B, C, D, and E. Also, murder is in a separate category or classification.

43
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Generally, for a person to be convicted under Maine law, the criminal conduct must occur in Maine or have a geographic relationship to Maine.  This is referred to as:

Territorial jurisdiction

44
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In the Maine Criminal Code, the statute of limitations defines the periods of time in which a prosecution must commence after the commission of a crime.  The crime of ______ has no statute of limitations.

Murder

45
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Each element of a crime must be proved by a preponderance of the evidence.

The forbidden conduct, attendant circumstances, culpable state of mind, and any related result.

46
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Under 17-A M.R.S. §35, culpable state of mind may include any of the following, except:

Without due care

47
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According to 17-A M.R.S. §35, a person may be said to act intentionally with respect to a result of the person’s conduct when it is the person’s ____________ to cause such a result.

Conscious object

48
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According to 17-A M.R.S. §35, a person may be said to act knowingly with respect to a result of the person’s conduct when the person is _______________________ that the person’s conduct will cause such a result.

Aware that it is practically certain.

49
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According to the Maine Criminal Code regarding culpable state of mind, reckless conduct is ____________ of the risk and criminal negligence is ___________ of the risk.

Conscious disregard; failing to be aware.

50
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The standard of proof beyond a reasonable doubt means:

Near certainty

51
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A general defense involves the defendant challenging facts or exposing weaknesses in the prosecution’s case while an _________ such as ________ involves the defendant raising a substantive justification or reasonable doubt.

Affirmative defense; intoxication

52
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Under Title 17-A, inchoate crimes, or Crimes of General Applicability, include the offenses of conspiracy and attempt, which cannot stand alone and must be connected to a substantive crime.

True

53
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Which chapter in Title 17-A addresses Crimes against the Person?

Chapter 9

54
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Under 17-A M.R.S §207, the definition of assault is: 

A person intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly causes bodily injury or offensive physical contact to another person

55
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Criminal threatening under 17-A M.R.S. §209 is committed when a person “intentionally or knowingly places another person in fear of imminent bodily injury.”  What is the required culpable state of mind for this offense? 

Intentionally or Knowingly

56
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A person who knowingly has no legal right to do so, and intentionally or knowingly takes, retains or entices another person under 14 years old commits:

Criminal Restraint

57
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A woman enters a salon for a haircut.  After receiving the haircut, the person tells the salon professional that she doesn’t have any money to pay for the haircut and leaves the salon.  What crime has been committed?

Theft of services

58
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A person is guilty of __________ if the person enters or surreptitiously remains in a structure knowing that the person is not licensed or privileged to do so, with the intent to commit a crime therein.

Burglary

59
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Under 17-A M.R.S. §501-A, when a person in a public place causes annoyance to others by intentionally or recklessly making loud and unreasonable noises, what crime have they committed?

Disorderly conduct

60
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A person witnesses a crime, and the law enforcement officer requests a written statement.  The person complies, but after investigation the law enforcement officer discovers that the witness lied on the statement.  What crime did the individual commit, if any?

Unsworn falsification

61
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A person is guilty of robbery if the person commits or attempts to commit theft and at the time of the person’s actions:

The actor recklessly inflicts bodily injury on another. And The actor threatens to use force against any person present or otherwise intentionally or knowingly places any person present in fear of the imminent use of force with the intent to prevent or overcome resistance to the taking of the property, or to the retention of the property immediately after the taking; or to compel the person in control of the property to give it up or to engage in other conduct that aids in the taking or carrying away of the property.

62
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If a person passes a “bad check,” that person may have committed the crime of:

Negotiating a Worthless Instrument

63
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In Title 17-A, drugs are addressed in?

Chapter 45

64
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Terms of imprisonment and fine amounts vary in Title 17-A according to the class of crime committed.

True

65
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The crime with the highest possible term of imprisonment is:

Murder

66
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There are 3 different types of license classes in the State of Maine?

True

67
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Illegal disposition of a traffic ticket is an infraction.

True

68
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Criminal speed is anything over the posted speed limit by 45 mph

False

69
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Under Title 29A Subsection 105 “Enforcement” officers are legally permitted to do the following.

All of the above.

70
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A tire is not in safe operating condition if it is worn to the point where less than _____ inch of tread on the tire.

2/32

71
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The following are all individual pieces of equipment subject to inspection in a class “A” Vehicle;

  • Brakes

  • Windshield

  • Horn

  • Rearview Mirror

  • Window Glass

  • Seat Belts

  • Steering Mechanism

  • Suspension System

  • Wheels and Axles

  • Frame

  • Exhaust System

  • Tires

  • Headlights

  • Taillights

  • Registration Plates and Rear Plate Lighting

  • Directional Lights

  • Rear Reflector

  • Body elements and Sheet Metal Hazards

  • Splash Guards

  • Catalytic Converter on 1983 and subsequent models

True

72
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A vehicle that is in this State but is displaying a valid certificate of inspection from another state is a civil traffic violation.

False

73
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Studded tires are prohibited from the first day of May to the first day of October.

True

74
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A person served with a VSAC for failing to produce liability insurance may have it dismissed if that individual provides proof that they had valid insurance at the time of the charge.

True

75
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A person commits a Class E crime if that person accompanies a permittee who is operating a vehicle on a public way and that accompanying person has impaired mental or physical functioning as a result of the use of intoxicating liquor or drugs.

True

76
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When can you interview/interrogate a Juvenile that has been taken into custody?

All of the above.

77
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How long may law enforcement keep a Juvenile in Interim Care?

6 hours

78
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It is permissible for an officer to transport a juvenile with an adult?

False

79
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The following are all Juvenile Crimes under the Maine Juvenile Code:

  • Any Title 17-A adult offense

  • Possession of marijuana

  • Possession of drug paraphernalia

  • Illegal transportation of drugs by minor

  • Illegal Possession of alcohol by consumption

  • Illegal Transportation of alcohol

  • Failure to provide identification (T:28-A Sec:2051,2052)

  • Failure to pay fine

  • Violation of probation

  • O.U.I.

  • Certain T:12 offenses involving hunting/OUI watercraft, ATV

True

80
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The Maine Tort Claims Act creates possible civil liability for law enforcement officers and their agencies for _______________ resulting from law enforcement officers’ actions or inactions.

All of the above.

81
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Civil actions against law enforcement officers under the federal Civil Rights Act, 42 U.S.C. §1983, require which of the following:

The Law enforcement officer acted under color of law, and claimant was deprived of a Constitutional or legal right.

82
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Law enforcement officers can minimize the risk of civil liability when engaging in stop and frisk interactions, vehicle stops, situational use of force, and arrest decisions by keeping in mind ____ Amendment Constitutional rights.

4th

83
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A law enforcement officer who makes an unlawful search could face which of the following kinds of liability:

All of the above.

84
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A law enforcement officer who makes an unlawful motor vehicle stop may be liable under:

The Maine Tort Claims Act and The Federal Civil Rights Act (B and C only)

85
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A law enforcement officer who makes an arrest should subsequently release the person if probable cause dissolves.

True

86
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An officer who uses unreasonable force may face liability under:

All of the above.

87
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Possible liability resulting from a law enforcement officer’s misuse of an emergency vehicle includes:

All of the above.

88
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A law enforcement officer may be found personally liable for death, injury, or property damage resulting from an unreasonable pursuit.

True

89
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Maine law defines deadly force as “physical force that a person uses with the intent of causing, or which [s/he] knows will create a substantial risk of causing, death or serious bodily injury.”

True

90
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Under which of the following circumstances does Maine law justify the use of deadly force?

In defense of self and others.

91
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Under Maine law, non-deadly force is any physical force that is not deadly force.

True

92
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In which of the following circumstances is the reasonable use of non-deadly force justified by law?

When making an arrest or preventing the escape from custody of an arrested person, and in defense of self and others.

93
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According to situational use of force, when facing a cooperative person, officer force options include which of the following:

All of the above.

94
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Use of deadly force by a law enforcement officer while in performance of his/her duties must be reported to the Maine Attorney General.

True

95
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Uses of physical force that must be reported to the Maine Attorney General include all the following, except:

The pointing of a loaded and charged firearm at another person.

96
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A law enforcement officer may be liable for choosing an unreasonable use of force option under which of the following authorities?

Agency policy, state criminal law, federal civil law, and the MCJA Board of Trustees (all of the above).

97
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All the following are individual action categories in situational use of force, except:

No use of force justified.

98
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Discharging a firearm is a reasonable force option in what situation?

Assaultive/high risk, and cooperative.

99
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According to situational use of force, when facing a person who is resistive, officer force options include all the following except:

Impacting vital areas.

100
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According to situational use of force, when facing a person who threatens assault, officer force options include which of the following:

Electronic weapons, impact weapons, and less lethal weapons (all of the above).