Renal Replacement Therapy & Dialysis

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50 question-and-answer flashcards covering principles, modalities, complications, and management strategies of renal replacement therapy and dialysis.

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52 Terms

1
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What transport process in dialysis moves small molecules (<500 Da) down a concentration gradient?

Diffusion

2
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Which mechanism is the main means of eliminating urea and creatinine during dialysis?

Diffusion

3
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In ultrafiltration, what substance is primarily transported across the membrane?

Water

4
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The rate of ultrafiltration is chiefly determined by which gradient?

Pressure gradient across the membrane

5
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What dialysis transport process drags solutes with water under pressure and is nicknamed “solvent drag”?

Convection

6
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Convection is especially useful for removing particles of what general molecular-weight range?

Mid- to large-weight solutes (>500–1,000 Da)

7
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Which dialysis modality employs both diffusion and convection for solute/fluid removal?

Hemodialysis (HD)

8
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For patients with CKD stage V, hemodialysis is usually required for how long?

Lifelong, unless they receive a kidney transplant

9
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Emergent hemodialysis used in acute kidney injury (AKI) is typically __.

Temporary

10
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How many times per week do most in-center hemodialysis patients receive treatment?

Three times per week (e.g., Monday/Wednesday/Friday or Tuesday/Thursday/Saturday)

11
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Home hemodialysis is commonly performed how many times weekly?

Five to six times per week

12
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Which long-term vascular access for HD is generally preferred because of superior blood flow, durability, and lower infection risk?

Arteriovenous (AV) fistula

13
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Approximately how long does an AV fistula need to mature before first use?

1–2 months

14
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What is an AV graft in the context of dialysis access?

A synthetic conduit surgically connecting an artery to a vein

15
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AV grafts usually require how long before they can be cannulated?

2–3 weeks

16
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Which dialysis access device can be used immediately but has the highest complication and shortest survival rates?

Central venous catheter

17
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Removing fluid too rapidly during HD can lead to which acute complication?

Intradialytic hypotension

18
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What is the first-line bolus therapy for hypotension during HD?

Normal saline 100–250 mL

19
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Which oral α-agonist is often given 30 minutes before HD to prevent hypotension?

Midodrine 2.5–10 mg orally

20
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Name an oral prodrug of norepinephrine that may be given 1 hour before HD to prevent hypotension.

Droxidopa 100–600 mg orally

21
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Besides medications, list one non-pharmacologic strategy to prevent HD-induced hypotension.

Prolong the dialysis session or omit antihypertensive doses on dialysis days

22
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How are catheter-related infections in HD generally managed?

Antibiotics (and catheter removal if indicated)

23
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Which thrombolytic agent can be instilled at 2 mg/2 mL per lumen to clear a clotted HD catheter?

Alteplase

24
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What reteplase dose is used intraluminally for HD catheter thrombosis?

0.4 units in 0.4 mL per lumen, aspirated after 20–30 min

25
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Why do all HD patients need water-soluble vitamin supplements?

HD removes water-soluble vitamins, causing deficiency

26
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Regular multivitamins are NOT recommended for HD patients because they __.

Do not contain adequate amounts of water-soluble vitamins lost during dialysis

27
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In peritoneal dialysis, what cavity holds the dialysate?

The peritoneal cavity

28
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The semipermeable membrane in PD is formed by what anatomical structure?

The peritoneal membrane lining the abdomen

29
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Which transport mechanism dominates solute removal in PD?

Diffusion (with some ultrafiltration for fluid)

30
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What osmotic agent in most PD solutions can cause glucose load and hyperglycemia?

Dextrose

31
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Name one strategy to manage hyperglycemia caused by PD solutions.

Add intraperitoneal insulin or switch to icodextrin (a glucose polymer)

32
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Cloudy effluent with or without abdominal pain in a PD patient suggests what complication?

Peritonitis

33
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What is the preferred route for antibiotics when treating PD-associated peritonitis?

Intraperitoneal administration

34
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Purulent drainage at the PD catheter exit site most likely indicates __.

Catheter-related infection

35
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Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) requires the patient to perform exchanges how?

Manually throughout the day

36
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Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) utilizes what piece of equipment to perform exchanges?

An automated cycler

37
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During APD, individual dwell times are typically how long?

1–2 hours

38
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Over the same time period, which modality removes drugs more efficiently—HD or PD?

Hemodialysis removes drugs more efficiently

39
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Which modality carries a higher risk of intradialytic hypotension—HD or PD?

Hemodialysis

40
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Systemic anticoagulation is routinely required for which dialysis modality?

Hemodialysis

41
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Does peritoneal dialysis require a central venous line?

No

42
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Which dialysis modality is generally simpler for a patient to self-administer?

Peritoneal dialysis

43
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Hemodialysis can be used for AKI management, whereas PD generally __.

Is not used for acute kidney injury

44
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Which modality usually demands more total daily time from the patient—PD or thrice-weekly HD?

Peritoneal dialysis

45
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In diffusion, how does molecular size influence transport speed across the membrane?

Larger molecules diffuse more slowly

46
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Another name for convection in dialysis, emphasizing solute drag, is __.

Solvent drag

47
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What pump in an HD machine propels blood through the extracorporeal circuit?

Blood pump

48
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Which component in the HD circuit monitors arterial-line pressure for safety?

Arterial pressure monitor

49
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What device detects air before blood returns to the patient during HD?

Air detector

50
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Which pump delivers dialysate on the other side of the HD membrane?

Dialysate pump

51
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What is currently the most commonly used treatment modality for end-stage renal disease (ESRD)?

Hemodialysis

52
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What two transport mechanisms together account for solute and fluid removal during hemodialysis?

Diffusion and convection