Combined LJM TBL 1

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126 Terms

1
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Which of the following best describes the structure of the articular capsule in synovial joints?

An outer layer of dense irregular connective tissue continuous with periostea and an inner synovial membrane of loose connective tissue

2
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The synovial fluid in joints primarily originates from which structure?

Capillary beds within the synovial membrane

3
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What is the main function of the articular cartilage found on the ends of bones in synovial joints?

To transmit joint loading and protect bony surfaces by cushioning

4
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"Weeping lubrication" in synovial joints refers to:

The squeezing of synovial fluid in and out of the articular cartilage during joint movement

5
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Which of the following statements about synovial joint ligaments is TRUE?

They guide movement by maintaining tautness to prevent excessive joint mobility

6
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What is the role of mechanoreceptors found within the synovial joint capsule?

To sense mechanical stretch and contribute to proprioception

7
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Which of the following best explains the reason why synovial fluid viscosity decreases with joint activity?

Movement facilitates the cycling of synovial fluid in and out of cartilage, maintaining fluidity

8
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The coracoacromial ligament of the shoulder:

Supports the joint by holding adjacent structures in place without crossing the joint

9
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Which factor does NOT directly affect synovial joint mobility?

Amount of synovial fluid produced by the periosteum

10
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Relaxin hormone affects synovial joints primarily by:

Increasing connective tissue laxity to allow greater mobility, especially in the female pelvis

11
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Which connective tissue type composes the fibrous outer layer of the articular capsule?

Dense irregular connective tissue with fibers oriented variably

12
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What is the primary source of nutrients and waste removal for cartilage cells in synovial joints?

Diffusion via synovial fluid moved by joint loading

13
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Collateral ligaments in joints like the metacarpophalangeal joint are best described as:

Thickened regions of the articular capsule blending into it

14
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The joint cavity in synovial joints is:

The space between articulating surfaces containing synovial fluid

15
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Why is the fibrous outer layer of the articular capsule described as 'continuous with periostea'?

Because it blends seamlessly with the periosteum, the connective tissue covering bone

16
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What is the fundamental cause of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

Autoimmune reaction to host nuclear proteins

17
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Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is most associated with SLE?

Type I (IgE mediated)

18
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What is the significance of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) in SLE?

They form immune complexes that cause inflammation

19
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The classic malar flush seen in SLE appears where?

On the cheeks

20
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Rheumatoid arthritis primarily affects which tissue?

Joint soft tissues

21
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What is ‘pannus’ in the context of rheumatoid arthritis?

Inflamed soft tissue mass over joints formed by inflammatory complexes

22
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In rheumatoid arthritis, what is the typical deformity of the hands?

Ulnar deviation at MCP joints and radial deviation at the wrist

23
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How do symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis typically change with activity?

Worsen with rest and improve with activity

24
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Which autoimmune disease mainly causes inflammation of skeletal muscles?

Polymyositis

25
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Which viral infections have been implicated as triggers in polymyositis?

HIV, Hepatitis C, Coxsackievirus

26
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What cells primarily cause muscle damage in polymyositis?

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes and macrophages

27
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What histological feature is characteristic of polymyositis?

Endomysial mononuclear infiltrates and muscle fiber necrosis

28
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Which muscles are predominantly affected in polymyositis?

Proximal muscles such as shoulder girdle and hip muscles

29
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Which autoimmune disease is characterized by collagen deposition and fibrosis rather than inflammation?

Scleroderma

30
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Raynaud’s phenomena associated with scleroderma differs from primary Raynaud’s disease in that:

It occurs secondary to another disease such as scleroderma

31
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What is the fundamental pathology in vasculitis?

Autoimmune inflammation of blood vessel walls

32
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Which antibody is commonly tested for in vasculitis involving neutrophil cytoplasmic antigens?

ANCA

33
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Sjögren’s syndrome primarily affects which glands?

Exocrine glands such as lacrimal and salivary glands

34
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Which viruses have been linked to triggering Sjögren’s syndrome?

Epstein-Barr virus

35
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The autoantibodies SSA/Ro and SSB/La are associated with which condition?

Sjögren’s syndrome

36
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What type of antibodies are naturally present in healthy individuals as part of immune housekeeping?

Low affinity IgM autoantibodie

37
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Pathological autoantibodies in autoimmune disease are primarily of which class?

IgG

38
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Rheumatoid Factor is:

An autoantibody that may appear in multiple autoimmune diseases

39
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What is the key challenge in diagnosing autoimmune conditions like SLE?

Correlation of multiple symptoms, signs, and complex blood tests

40
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Which of the following best describes the relationship between genetics and autoimmune diseases discussed?

Genetic predisposition combined with environmental triggers

41
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Which cell type is primarily responsible for maintaining cartilage?

Chondrocytes

42
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What component of cartilage is most crucial for retaining water and thus providing compressive strength?

Proteoglycans

43
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Why does cartilage have a poor capacity to heal after injury?

Absence of blood vessels and nerves

44
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What type of cartilage forms as a repair response after damage to hyaline cartilage?

Fibrocartilage

45
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What role does the meniscus play in the knee joint?

Provides energy dissipation and shock absorption

46
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Which nutrient source supports cartilage maintenance since it lacks blood supply?

Synovial fluid diffusion

47
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Which movement term describes moving a limb away from the midline of the body?

Abduction

48
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What is the best description of a chondral fracture?

A fracture involving cartilage without underlying bone damage

49
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Why is osteoarthritis more common in professional athletes like footballers?

Due to repetitive joint trauma and excessive biomechanical stress

50
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Which statement about osteochondritis dissecans is TRUE?

It involves repetitive damage to cartilage and subchondral bone

51
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Osteonecrosis primarily results from

Blood supply interruption leading to bone and cartilage death

52
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Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with causing osteonecrosis?

Excessive exercise

53
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Which type of cartilage is present in the meniscus?

Fibrocartilage

54
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What biomechanical advice is often given after a cartilage or bone fracture in the knee?

Movement or mobilization to stimulate repair

55
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What happens when the meniscus is removed completely?

Reduced energy dissipation leading to increased cartilage failure risk

56
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Which of these is NOT a component of cartilage extracellular matrix?

Myelin

57
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Which statement about cartilage healing is correct?

Fibrocartilage repair tissue lacks the biomechanical properties of hyaline cartilage

58
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Which of the following is the best example of a biomechanical factor contributing to cartilage failure?

Meniscal removal increasing joint stress

59
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The most characteristic early symptom of osteoarthritis due to cartilage failure is:

Pain worsening after activity

60
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Which of the following statements about synovial fluid is FALSE?

It contains immune cells to attack pathogens

61
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Why is osteonecrosis more disabling in adults compared to children?

Adults’ bones have less capacity for spontaneous repair

62
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Which of these best explains why complete meniscal removal is rarely done?

Meniscus removal increases risk of early joint degeneration

63
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Which of the following is primarily responsible for forming the bone matrix

Osteoblasts

64
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What gives bone its mechanical properties such as stiffness and toughness?

Extracellular matrix

65
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Osteoclasts are derived from which cell lineage?

Specialized macrophages

66
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Which of the following accurately describes osteogenic cells?

Precursors to osteocytes and osteoblasts

67
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Which bone cell primarily regulates calcium levels through resorption activity?

Osteoclast

68
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According to Wolff’s Law, bone density changes in response to:

Mechanical stress

69
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Inverse Wolff’s Law refers to

Loss of bone mass due to lack of mechanical load

70
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Disuse osteopenia occurs as a result of:

Lack of mechanical stress

71
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Osteoporosis differs from rickets primarily in that it is:

A quantitative bone deficiency

72
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Which region of bone is most affected in rickets?

Epiphyseal plate

73
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Strain is defined as:

Deformation divided by original length

74
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Which region of the stress-strain curve shows reversible deformation?

Elastic region

75
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The slope of the elastic portion of the stress-strain curve represents:

Young’s Modulus

76
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The area under the stress-strain curve represents:

Toughness

77
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Hooke’s Law is valid within which region of the stress-strain graph?

Elastic

78
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What marks the transition from elastic to plastic deformation on the stress-strain graph?

Yield point

79
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Necking is characterized by:

Decrease in cross-sectional area before fracture

80
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A plastic bag demonstrates which sequence when pulled until failure?

Elastic → Plastic → Necking

81
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Toughness is best defined as the material’s ability to:

Absorb energy before fracturing

82
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Why is titanium preferred over stainless steel in hip implants?

It has a closer Young’s Modulus to bone

83
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Modulus mismatch can lead to:

Stress shielding and bone loss

84
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Which material shows almost no plastic deformation before breaking?

Ceramic

85
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In a stress-strain curve, ceramic materials are represented by:

High-gradient elastic lines with no plastic region

86
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Compact bone primarily consists of:

Hydroxyapatite

87
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Compared to cortical bone, spongy bone has:

Lower stiffness

88
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Which bone type is more likely to fracture under low stress due to thin cortices?

Spongy bone

89
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Bone fractures when:

The stress exceeds the elastic limit

90
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Osteoporotic bone fractures more easily because:

. It has lower toughness and stiffness

91
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Which statement about primary vs secondary bone healing is true?

The strain level influences the type of healing

92
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Which synovial joint type allows movement primarily in one plane like flexion and extension?

Hinge joint

93
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Which synovial joint permits rotational movement around a single longitudinal axis?

Pivot joint

94
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Which synovial joint allows movement in two planes (flexion-extension and abduction-adduction) but no rotation?

Condyloid joint

95
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Which synovial joint type allows movement in multiple planes including rotation, flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction?

Ball-and-socket joint

96
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Which synovial joint has saddle-shaped articulating surfaces allowing movement in two planes plus opposition?

Saddle joint

97
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Which synovial joint type is characterized by flat or slightly curved articular surfaces that allow only gliding movements?

Plane joint

98
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Which of the following lists includes all six types of synovial joints?

Hinge, pivot, plane, ball-and-socket, saddle, condyloid

99
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Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint?

Elbow joint

100
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The joint that allows rotational movement around a single axis, such as the proximal radioulnar joint, is classified as a:

Pivot joint