NURS 431: LIFESPAN WEEKLY QUIZZES WK 1-7

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58 Terms

1
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WK 1

You are a nurse taking a history on a patient in a clinic. You keep in mind that the most important aspect of primary prevention regarding risk-reduction practices is:

a. Getting tested annually for STIs

b. Treatment of sexually transmitted infections

c. Reducing the number of partners

d.Knowing one’s partners

c. Reducing the number of partners

2
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WK 1

As a nursing student you know that the following is true about Bacterial STIs: (select all that apply)

a. Can result in adverse pregnancy outcomes

b. Treatment involves antibiotics

c.There is no permanent cure

d. Often exhibit no symptoms

e. Should involve partner treatment

a, b, d, e

3
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WK 1

As a nursing student you know that the following is true about Viral STIs: (select all that apply)

a. they are chronic

b. Are easy to detect based on obvious symptoms

c. Should involve partner treatment

d. Are cured with antibiotics

e. Often exhibit no symptoms

a, b

4
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WK 1

When providing education to a patient regarding treatment of Chlamydia, an important piece of education is:

a. You can resume unprotected sex at any time after diagnosis

b. You can have sex immediately after you complete taking the entire dose of medication

c. Wait at least 7 days after completing treatment to resume unprotected sex as you can still pass on infection

d. You can continue to have sex during treatment without risk of spreading the infection

c. Wait at least 7 days after completing treatment to resume unprotected sex as you can still pass on infection

5
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WK 1

You are educating a patient on hormonal contraception. You let her know that combined hormonal contraceptives, which prevent ovulation from occurring, come in the following forms:

a. IUD, implant and patch

b. Ring, patch and pills

c. Ring, patch and IUD

d. IUD, patch and pills

b. Ring, patch and pills

6
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WK 1

You are educating a patient on contraceptive methods that do not contain hormones. You let her know that these include:

a. implant, copper IUD and condoms

b. Ring, pills and implant

c. Condoms, natural family planning and levonorgestrel-releasing IUD

d. Copper IUD, condoms, natural family planning

d. Copper IUD, condoms, natural family planning

7
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WK 1

Case Scenario : You are caring for a 17-year-old girl who reports to the clinic with history of vaginal itching, abnormal vaginal discharge, and pain when passing urine and during sex.

Based on the information above which of the following diagnosis would potentially cause these symptoms. Select all that apply

a. Gonorrhea

b. Secondary Syphillis

c. Hepatitis C

d. Hepatitis B

e. Chlamydia

a. Gonorrhea

e. Chlamydia

8
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WK 1

Case Scenario : You are caring for a 17-year-old girl who reports to the clinic with history of vaginal itching, abnormal vaginal discharge, and pain when passing urine and during sex.

What would be the first thing that the provider should?

a. Ask history about sexual partners

b. Conduct a vaginal exam to assess c. discharge and presence of sores

d. Collect a urine and vaginal swab for a NAAT test

e. Educate the client about sex practices

a. Ask history about sexual partners

9
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WK 2

You are caring for a client on her initial visit. During interview she mentions that she got pregnant in 2010 and the pregnancy ended at 12 weeks; her second pregnancy was in 2012 and she delivered at 36 weeks and child is alive; her other pregnancy was twins delivered at 34 weeks gestations and both are alive; and she is currently pregnant. Calculate her GTPAL

a. G-4, T-0, P-3, A-1, L-3

b. G-4, T-0, P-2, A-1, L-3

c. G-4, T-1, P-2, A-1, L-3

d. G-5, T-0, P-3, A-1, L-3

b. G-4, T-0, P-2, A-1, L-3

10
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WK 2

You are caring for a client on her initial prenatal visit. Her LNMP is July 8th, 2020. Using Nagele's rule what is her estimated date of confinement (EDC)

a. 04/15/2021

b. 03/15/2021

c. 05/01/2021

d. 04/01/2021

a. 04/15/2021

11
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WK 2

Which of the following are considered positive signs of pregnancy:

a. Ultrasound assessment of the fetal heart rate

b. Abdominal enlargement

c. A positive pregnancy test

d. Nausea, vomiting and a missed menstrual period

a. Ultrasound assessment of the fetal heart rate

12
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WK 2

You are caring for a patient who is 24 weeks pregnant. She is concerned about a recent dark pigmented color change in the form of a vertical line that goes from above the umbilicus to the top of the pubis. The best thing to tell her is:

a. This is not a normal finding in pregnancy and she should be referred to a dermatologist

b. This is called chloasma – it is normal in pregnancy

c. This is called linea nigra and is normal in pregnancy

d. This is normal in pregnancy but is often accompanied by itching and hives

c. This is called linea nigra and is normal in pregnancy

13
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WK 2

The following are part of all typical initial prenatal visits at approximately 12 weeks gestation (select all that apply):

a. Education about pregnancy symptoms and warning signs

b. Assessment of risk of intimate partner violence

c. Health history, nutritional history and family history

d. Measurement of fundal height

e. Lab tests, including CBC and blood type

a, b, c, e

14
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WK 2

Normal cardiovascular changes in pregnancy include:

a. Heart rate increases 10-15bpm

b. Blood pressure increases in late pregnancy

c. Cardiac output decreases

d. Blood volume decreases

a. Heart rate increases 10-15bpm

15
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WK 2

A nurse is examining fundal height in a pregnant woman in the third trimester. As the woman arises from her the bed she tells the nurse that she feels dizzy. The nurse explains:

a. This can be due to pressure on the vena cava and the woman should lie on her left side

b. This can be due to pressure on the vena cava and the woman should lie on her right side

c. This can be due to pressure on the legs and the woman should lie on her back with feet

d. This can be due to increased venous return from the increased circulatory volume, elevate legs.

a. This can be due to pressure on the vena cava and the woman should lie on her left side

16
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WK 2

When is urinary frequency most common during pregnancy?

a. First and second trimester

b. The first and third trimester

c. The second and third trimester

d. The third trimester only

b. The first and third trimester

17
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WK 2

A primigravida reports to the clinic at 37 weeks gestation . She explains that she has been experienced pressure on the diaphragm and shortness of breath in the past week, but she was told that everything was okay. She explains that her chest feels lighter and breathing has improved, but she occasionally feels sharp pain in the pelvis that comes suddenly and goes. All other findings are normal. Which of the following would be the most appropriate explanation of this condition?

a. “This is caused by increased oxygen demands due to growing fetus”

b. “This is a result of physiological anemia due to increased blood volume”

c. “Your body demands have increased with the increased body weight due to the enlarged uterus”

d. “This is called lightening as the fetus descends into the pelvic cavity"

d. "This is called lightening as the fetus descends into the pelvic cavity"

18
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WK 3

You are caring for a newly admitted patient with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which finding is a clinical manifestation of this diagnosis?

a. Ketones present in urine sample

b. Platelets of 100,000

c. Fasting serum glucose of 100

d. Hemoglobin of 10.8

a. Ketones present in urine sample

19
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WK 3

You are caring for a patient who is 37 weeks pregnant. You are concerned about the risk of preeclampsia when the patient tells you she is having:

a. Edema in her feet and ankles

b. A history of headaches at 14-18 weeks gestation

d. Fatigue

e. Scotoma (blind spots in her vision)

e. Scotoma (blind spots in her vision)

20
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WK 3

The goal of glycemic control in a pregnancy complicated by diabetes is:

a. Avoiding maternal hypoglycemia

b. Maintaining maternal fasting blood sugar at 120mg/dl or less

c. Maintaining a Hemoglobin A1C of below 8.0

d. Maintaining maternal fasting blood sugar at 65-95mg/dl

d. Maintaining maternal fasting blood sugar at 65-95mg/dl

21
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WK 3

You are caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with HELLP syndrome. You would expect to see the following findings in her lab results:

a. Low platelets (<100,000)

b. Elevated hemoglobin level (>12.0)

c. Decreased liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

d. Elevated WBCs

a. Low platelets (<100,000)

22
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WK 3

You are providing care to a client with pre-eclampsia on Magnesium sulfate. Which on the following finding would cause concern?

a. Respiratory rate of 11/min

b. Urine output of 50ml/hr

c. Protein is urine of 2g/24hr

d. Serum levels of Mag Sulfate of 6mEq/L

a. Respiratory rate of 11/min

23
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WK 3

A 25-year-old gravida 1 para 0 reports for prenatal care. She is at 5-weeks gestation and her medical history shows that she has Type 1 diabetes. Which of the following would indicate understanding of her medical therapy?

a. “My current insulin needs have greatly increased, and they need to double my dose to prevent severe hyperglycemia”

b. "My current insulin needs have increased, and I need dose adjustment because I am at risk of developing hyperglycemia”

c. “My current insulin needs have decreased, and I need dose adjustment because I am at risk of developing hypoglycemia”

d. "My current insulin needs have not changed and I don’t need dose adjustment from my pre-pregnancy insulin regimen”

c. "My current insulin needs have decreased, and I need dose adjustment because I am at risk of developing hypoglycemia"

24
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WK 3

A client with type 2 diabetes at 20 weeks gestation complains that they feel nauseous and and excessive thirst. On assessment the client is confused and respirations are shallow at rapid at 35 breaths per minute with a sweet fruity scented breath. The nurse identifies that these signs and symptoms are indicative of?

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis

b. Urinary tract infection

c. Hyperemesis gravidarum

d. Hypoglycemia

a. Diabetic ketoacidosis

25
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WK 3

A client reports to for an initial prenatal visit at 14 weeks gestation. On assessment her Blood pressure is 180/100mhHg with protein in urine of 300mg. The nurse understand that that this is indicative of:

a. Gestational hypertension

b. Pre-eclampsia

c. Eclampsia

d. Chronic hypertension

d. Chronic hypertension

26
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WK 3You are caring for a mother who reports to the emergency room at 26 weeks gestation with history of vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. On examination you observe dark red blood and clots, and her abdomen feels tense. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Placental abruption

b. Ectopic pregnancy

c. Miscarriage

d. Placenta Previa

a. Placental abruption

27
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WK 4

The nurse knows that effacement refers to

a. Dilatation of the cervical os as the uterus contracts and retracts pulling on the cervix

b. The discomfort that begins in the back and radiates around to the abdomen

c. The softening of the cervix in preparation for labor and delivery

d. Thinning of the cervix as is drawn upward from the uterine side walls

d. Thinning of the cervix as is drawn upward from the uterine side walls

28
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WK 4

The nurse is performing a Leopold’s maneuver and pelvic assessment. The figure below indicates the findings. What is the position and presentation of the fetus?

a. Face Presentation, Right Occiput Anterior (ROA)

b. Cephalic presentation, Left Occiput anterior (LOA)

c. Cephalic presentation, Right Occiput Anterior (ROA)

d. Brow Presentation, Left Occiput anterior (LOA)

b. Cephalic presentation, Left Occiput anterior (LOA)

<p>b. Cephalic presentation, Left Occiput anterior (LOA)</p>
29
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WK 4

The resident has just told your patient that her baby’s head is at zero station – she asks what that means so you will tell her that:

a. The baby’s head is ready to be born – as the head is now engaged

b. The baby’s head is below the ischial spines - this is the smallest part of the pelvis

c. The baby’s head is above the ischial spines – this is the largest part of the pelvis

d. The baby’s head is at the ischial spines - this is the smallest part of the pelvis

d. The baby's head is at the ischial spines - this is the smallest part of the pelvis

30
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WK 4

Your patient is 39 weeks pregnant and has called the clinic to ask if she might be in labor.

The following signs indicate that she is likely in true labor:

a. Contractions that get stronger or less strong depending on maternal movement

b. Cervical effacement

c. Regular contractions that have been getting stronger and closer together

d. Bloody show

c. Regular contractions that have been getting stronger and closer together

31
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WK 4

You are admitting a patient to L&D and she tells you that she thinks that her “water broke.”

Which of the following findings would indicate that the fluid is amniotic fluid?

a. The fluid is clear, pale yellow and has an alkaline pH of 7.0

b. The patient reports that she has been “leaking” fluid for the past 8 hours

c. The fluid is clear, pale yellow and has an acidic pH of 5.0

d. The fluid is blood tinged and has an acidic pH of 6.0

a. The fluid is clear, pale yellow and has an alkaline pH of 7.0

32
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WK 4

As a nursing student you know that signs of placental separation include: (select two that apply)

a. Gush of blood

b. Uterus contract and descend into the pelvis

c. Umbilical cord shortens

d. Uterus becomes more globular and firm

e. Mothers has the urge to push

a , d

33
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WK 4

The labor nurse is called to the bedside. The patient reports the urge to bear down with contractions. On assessment the cervical exam is 9/100/+1 station. What stage of labor is this person in?

a. Stage 1: Latent

b. Stage 2

c. Stage 1: Active

d. Stage 1: Transitional

d. Stage 1: Transitional

34
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WK 4

Constant support during labor has been shown to: (select all of the following that apply)

a. Decrease medical interventions in labor

b. Decrease number of cesarean deliveries

c. Decrease patient satisfaction and feelings of labor

d. Decrease medication use in labor

a, b, d

35
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WK 5

A primary risk of Pitocin (oxytocin) is:

a. Prolonged labor

b. Tachysystole

c. Early decelerations

d. An increased rate of c-section

b. Tachysystole

36
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WK 5

A client comes in with irregular uterine contractions and drainage of amniotic fluid at 32 weeks gestation. Which of the following medications is recommended for this situation?

a. NSAIDs

b. Clonidine

c. Gabapentin

d. Betamethasone

d. Betamethasone

37
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WK 5

As a nursing student you understand the consequence of persistent posterior positions in labor include?

a. Shorter second stage of labor

b. Precipitate labor

c. Reduced pain sensation

d. Labor dystocia

d. Labor dystocia

38
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WK 5

You are caring for a client with cord prolapse. Which of the following interventions would he suitable for this case? (select three that apply)

a. Position the client in extreme Trendelenberg

b. Administer oxygen 10L via mask

c. Position the client in supine position for adequate gaseous exchange

d. Glove examining hand and quickly insert two finger in vagina and push presenting part upward

e. Try and see if the cord can be replaced back into the cervix gently

a, b, d

39
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WK 5

A 33-year-old client with a history of one cesarean section would like to know if she is a candidate for Vaginal Birth after Cesarean Section (VBAC). Which of the following would be a contraindication for this? (select two that apply)

a. Preterm labor

b. First c-section involved pfannenstiel incision

c. Uterine trauma and perforation that was successfully repaired

d. First c-section involved classical incision

e. Maternal Age

c. Uterine trauma and perforation that was successfully repaired

d. First c-section involved classical incision

40
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WK 5

You are caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with Shoulder dystocia. You are alone in the room. Which of the following is a priority action to take?

a. Help woman into position that facilitate birth of shoulder

b. Stay calm and quickly call for help

c. Call for help and document your observations

d. Turn patient onto her left side and call for help

b. Stay calm and quickly call for help

41
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WK 5

Which of the following would be a contraindication for a vacuum extraction?

a. Cervix at 10cm dilatation

b. Pre-eclampsia

c. Head at station 0

d. Breech presentation

d. Breech presentation

42
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WK 5

You are working as an RN in a labor and delivery unit. Which of the following clients would you see first?

a. A primigravida at 5cm dilatation with a report of vaginal bleeding with clots and a tense abdomen

b. A multigravida at 8cm dilatation complaining about painful uterine contractions

c. A primigravida at full dilatation and head at station -1 complaining about urge to push

d. A multigravida in fourth stage of labor with mild bleeding and complaining of difficulties attaching infant to breast

a. A primigravida at 5cm dilatation with a report of vaginal bleeding with clots and a tense abdomen

43
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WK 6

You are caring for a mother 14 hours after birth. The nurse understands that the uterus should be:

a. Slightly pushed to the side, boggy, and halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus

b. Midline, firm, and at the level of the symphysis pubis

c. Midline, firm, and at the level of the umbilicus

d. Midline, firm, and halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus

c. Midline, firm, and at the level of the umbilicus

44
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WK 6

The day after birth of her baby, a mother tells the nurse that she has been urinating excessively. What is the nurse’s response?

a. This may be an early sign of postpartum pre-eclampsia

b. You probably have a UTI, I will obtain a urine sample

c. You will need to cut back on your fluid intake

d. This is a normal response to eliminate extra extracellular fluid from the pregnancy

d. This is a normal response to eliminate extra extracellular fluid from the pregnancy

45
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WK 6

A nurse is preparing to perform a fundal assessment on a postpartum client. The initial nursing action in performing this assessment is which of the following?

a. Ask the client to turn on her side

b. Massage the fundus gently before determining the level of the fundus.

c. Ask the client to lie flat on her back with the knees and legs flat and straight.

d. Ask the mother to urinate and empty her bladder

d. Ask the mother to urinate and empty her bladder

46
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WK 6

The nurse is assessing the lochia on a 1-day PP patient. The nurse notes that the lochia is red and has a foul-smelling odor. The nurse determines that this assessment finding is:

a. Indicates the presence of infection

b. Indicates the need for increasing ambulation

c. Indicates the need for increasing oral fluids

d. Document this as a normal finding

a. Indicates the presence of infection

47
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WK 6

Which of the following psychological responses would characteristic of puerperal psychosis?

a. Fatigue after birth

b. Mother is restless and say that she sees ghosts trying to steal her baby

c. Excessive weepiness and feeling of inadequacy on day 1 postpartum

d. Mood swings, anxiety, and insomnia on day 7 postpartum

b. Mother is restless and say that she sees ghosts trying to steal her baby

48
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WK 6

You are caring for a client in immediate postpartum period with heavy bright vaginal bleeding and clots. On abdominal assessment the bladder is empty and uterus in firm, midline, and halfway between symphysis pubis and umbilicus. What should the nurse consider the most likely cause of this hemorrhage?

a. Uterine atony

b. Superficial lacerations

c. Normal bleeding associated with birth

d. Cervical tear or deep lacerations

d. Cervical tear or deep lacerations

49
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WK 6

You are caring for a client with postpartum hemorrhage from uterine atony. which of the following would be a priority nursing diagnosis.

a. Notify their provider

b. Start an IV infusion of 1L Ringers lactate with 10-40 units of Oxytocin

c. Administer oxygen 10L via mask

d. Massage the uterine fundus and express clots

d. Massage the uterine fundus and express clots

50
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WK 6

As a nursing student you understand the following intervention would be contraindicated in a client with severe pain of left leg and Deep Vein Thrombosis:

a. Massage the affected area to promote muscle relaxation

b. Encouraging bed rest

c. Elevation of the affected leg and use of compression stocking

d. Administer prescribed anticoagulant therapy and analgesics

a. Massage the affected area to promote muscle relaxation

51
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WK 7

A nurse is conducting an assessment and while holding the babies face with her hand the baby turns to the side and catches the nurses finger in his/her mouth. Which reflex is this?

a. Suckling reflex

b. Rooting reflex

c. Babinski reflex

d. Moro reflex

b. Rooting reflex

52
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WK 7

You are conducting an assessment on a newborn born 1 hours ago. Which of the following finding would signal the need to intervene?

a. Bluish color on the lips and chest

b. Heart rate of 130 beats per minute

c. Bluish color on hands and feet

d. Temperature of 98 degrees Fahrenheit

a. Bluish color on the lips and chest

53
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WK 7

A mother is changing a diaper of her 2-hour female infant notices thick greenish stool on the diapers. What is the best response to the mother?

a. You infant may need to be examined for possibility of hepatic system problems

b. Green meconium is the sign of rapid gastrointestinal motility

c. Greening colored stool called meconium is normal and should change to yellowish over time

d. Green colored stool called meconium is a sign a hypoxia in the infant and needs to be investigated

c. Greening colored stool called meconium is normal and should change to yellowish over time

54
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WK 7

You are examining an infant born through vaginal birth. On examination of the fetal head you notice a prominent ridge on the fetal skull. The patient asks why this ridge is present. You understand that this is:

a. A normal finding called caput succedaneum indicating a small buildup of fluid or edema following a long labor

b. A normal finding called overriding sutures caused by molding of skull plates to allow head to deliver vaginally

c. An abnormal finding called subgaleal hemorrhage as a result of a forceps or vacuum delivery

d. An abnormal finding called cephalohematoma that resulted in trauma to the newborn head at delivery

b. A normal finding called overriding sutures caused by molding of skull plates to allow head to deliver vaginally

55
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WK 7

While assess the infant you notice that as the infant breathes in, both the chest and abdomen moves upward. This is indicative of:

a. Adventitious breathing

b. Substernal chest retractions

c. Diaphragmatic breathing

d. Intercoastal chest retractions

56
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WK 7

The nurse is stroking sole of foot along lateral edge and the infant toes extend while the tow flex. This reflex is called?

a. Palmar grasp reflex

b. Babinski sign

c. Moro reflex

d. Stepping reflex

b. Babinski sign

57
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WK 7

You have been assigned to administer Vitamin K to an infant. The mother asks why this injection is necessary. Which of the following responses provide accurate information for main reason we give vitamin K to infants

a. Vitamin K is a group of vitamins that are responsible for boosting the immune system preventing infection

b. Vitamin K is a group of vitamins that are responsible for coagulation reducing the risk of bleeding

c. Vitamin K is a group of vitamins that are responsible for infant growth and development

d. Vitamin K is a group of vitamins that are responsible for promoting uptake of other newborn immunizations

b. Vitamin K is a group of vitamins that are responsible for coagulation reducing the risk of bleeding

58
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WK 7

You are educating a new mother about safe sleep practices. Which of the following would you include in your education? Select all that apply

a. Keep toys and pillows to a minimum to avoid distracting baby

b. Infant need to be placed on their abdomen to ease in breathing

c. Infants need to be placed on their back

d. A separate crib or box, but in the same room as the mother is recommended

e. Baby need to be placed on a firm mattress

c, d, e