IT Infrastructure, Virtualization, Cybersecurity, and Business Continuity Concepts

What standard does IEEE 802 establish?

The standard for copper cabling used in networking computers via Ethernet.

What is the maximum cable run for Ethernet without repeaters?

100 meters, with 90 meters for the actual run and 5 meters for patch cables on both ends.

What is the purpose of twisting wires in Ethernet cables?

To eliminate crosstalk, or interference.

What does SF/UTP stand for?

Shielded Foil Unshielded Twisted Pair, featuring a braided screen and foil shield for extra EMI protection.

What distinguishes Cat 5e cables from Cat 5 cables?

Cat 5e cables are built under strict standards to reduce crosstalk issues.

What is the maximum speed supported by Cat 6 cables?

Up to 10 Gbps for distances of up to 55 meters.

What is the primary purpose of Cat 6a cables?

To support twice the maximum bandwidth and higher transmission speeds over longer cable lengths.

What is the maximum transmission speed of Cat 7 cables?

Up to 100 Gbps at a range of 15 meters.

What color Ethernet cable typically denotes a crossover connection?

Green Ethernet cables.

What is the difference between single-mode and multi-mode fiber optic cables?

Single-mode uses a thin core for long-distance transmission, while multi-mode uses a thicker core for short distances.

What is the purpose of cladding in fiber optic cables?

To allow light to bounce off the wall of the fiber and continue traveling along its path.

What color jacket is typically used for OM 1/2 multimode fiber optic cables?

Orange.

What is the function of a network interface unit (NIU)?

It serves as the point of demarcation between the carrier network and the customer's network.

What does CSU/DSU stand for?

Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit.

What is the role of a CSU/DSU?

To convert digital data frames from LAN to WAN formats and handle clocking and digital signals.

What is the purpose of repeaters in networking?

To reamplify the signal to overcome distance limitations of transmission media.

What distinguishes a regenerator from a repeater?

A regenerator reamplifies, reshapes, and retimes the signal, while a repeater only reamplifies.

What type of fiber optic cable construction is recommended for device-to-device applications?

Breakout or Fan Out construction.

What is the typical use of loose tube fiber optic cables?

For Telco standards, usually not used in Audio/Video or Ethernet applications.

What is the significance of the color yellow in Ethernet cables?

It indicates Power over Ethernet (POE) connections, which deliver a 30W current.

What is the maximum distance for Cat 6 cables to support 10 Gbps?

55 meters.

What is the primary function of fiber optic cable jackets?

To protect the fibers from mechanical and environmental damage.

What is the typical construction of distribution or TightPack fiber optic cables?

All buffered fibers under a single jacket with strength members.

What does attenuation in fiber optics refer to?

The loss of signal strength as light travels through the fiber.

What is the typical core size for single-mode fiber optic cables?

A thin 9-micrometer core.

What type of shielding do Cat 6a cables always have?

They are always shielded.

What is the purpose of the test jack in a network interface unit?

To allow technicians to plug in testing equipment for diagnostics.

What is a Network Interface Card (NIC)?

A hardware component that allows a device to communicate over a network, either as a separate card or integrated into the motherboard.

What types of NICs exist?

Wired (Ethernet) and wireless (Wi-Fi).

What is the primary function of a NIC?

To transmit and receive layer 1 data and to be reachable via layer 2 switching.

What does the ROM in a NIC store?

The factory-assigned medium access control (MAC) address, a unique 48-bit address.

What standards do modern NICs operate according to?

IEEE 802.3 for Ethernet and IEEE 802.11 for Wi-Fi.

What is the role of a switch in a network?

A layer 2 device that routes traffic via frames using MAC addresses.

How do unmanaged switches differ from hubs?

Unmanaged switches transmit data only to the selected device, while hubs transmit data to all connected devices.

What is a managed switch?

A switch that allows subdividing LANs into multiple virtual LANs (VLANs).

What is the purpose of a bridge in networking?

To create a single, aggregate network from multiple network segments.

How many ports do most bridges have?

Typically 2 or 4 ports.

What is the difference between bridges and switches?

Bridges are software-based and have fewer ports, while switches are hardware-based and use chips for faster forwarding decisions.

What is the function of a router?

To connect two or more packet-switched networks and forward traffic to the intended device.

What is stored in a router's routing table?

Paths made up of the IP addresses of devices along a path.

What is the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?

A protocol used to discover other hosts on a network by mapping MAC addresses to IP addresses.

What does the Routing Information Protocol (RIP) do?

Multicasts IP addresses to other routers within a network.

What is the purpose of a firewall?

To filter incoming and outgoing traffic by port, IP address, and application.

At which layers do firewalls operate?

Layers 3 and 4; application firewalls operate at layer 7.

What is the difference between UDP and TCP?

UDP is a lightweight protocol without handshakes, while TCP requires handshakes for quality delivery.

What are the three types of modern firewalls?

Packet-filtering, stateful inspection, and proxy firewalls.

What is a multiplexer?

A device that allows the transmission of multiple streams of data across a single transmission medium.

What is Dense Wave Division Multiplexing (DWDM)?

A method of transmitting multiple streams of data over a fiber optic carrier using different wavelengths of light.

What is Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)?

A method of transmitting multiple streams of data using synchronized switches on either end of the circuit.

What is the significance of the Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm?

It is used in the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol for efficient routing in IP networks.

What is the function of the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)?

A distance vector routing protocol used for IP, AppleTalk, and NetWare networks, designed to follow on from IGRP.

What does the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) do?

It transfers routing information between routers in different autonomous systems and is the routing protocol of the internet.

What is the difference between distance vector and link-state routing protocols?

Distance vector protocols share routing information based on distance, while link-state protocols share information about the state of the links.

What is the primary function of a load balancer?

To distribute traffic evenly among a group of servers.

What are the two main types of load balancing algorithms?

Static and Dynamic.

Describe the round-robin load balancing method.

An authoritative name server distributes traffic to servers in a sequential manner.

What does the weighted round-robin method do?

Assigns different weights to servers based on their capacity, directing more traffic to higher-weighted servers.

How does the IP hash method work in load balancing?

It uses a mathematical computation on the client IP address to determine which server to route traffic to.

What is the least connection method in dynamic load balancing?

It directs traffic to the server with the fewest active connections.

Explain the weighted least connection method.

It assigns weights to servers based on their capacity to handle connections and directs traffic accordingly.

What does the least response time method consider when distributing traffic?

It combines server response time and active connections to determine the best server.

What is the resource-based method in load balancing?

It analyzes the current server load and distributes traffic based on available resources.

What is the standard width of IT equipment racks?

19 inches.

How is rack height expressed?

In rack units (U), where one rack unit is 1.75 inches high.

What is a 42U rack?

A rack that is 42 rack units high, theoretically allowing for fourteen 3U servers.

What is virtualization?

The abstraction of an execution environment that can be dynamically allocated to clients.

What is a virtual machine (VM)?

A logical compute system with virtual hardware that runs on a physical machine.

What is the role of a hypervisor in virtualization?

To allow multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single compute system.

What distinguishes a type 1 hypervisor from a type 2 hypervisor?

Type 1 runs directly on the host hardware, while type 2 runs on top of an operating system.

What are the advantages of using virtual machines?

They allow for easier creation, backup, and migration of machines, and can run legacy systems.

How does a hypervisor manage virtual machines?

It maps virtual hardware to physical hardware and manages VM files for data protection.

What is the purpose of an Application Programming Interface (API)?

To provide an interface for communication between software applications.

What are first platform applications based on?

Mainframes and terminals, where applications are hosted centrally.

What characterizes second platform applications?

They use a distributed application architecture with servers providing services to client applications.

What technologies are third platform applications based on?

Cloud, Big Data analytics, mobile, and social technologies.

What is a virtual workspace?

An abstraction of an execution environment available to authorized clients using defined protocols.

What is the function of an agent in resource-based load balancing?

To calculate server resource usage and report free resources to the load balancer.

What does the term 'latency' refer to in the context of hypervisors?

The delay experienced in communication between the hypervisor and the virtual machines.

What is the significance of 'clean' installs in virtualization?

They allow for software testing in a controlled environment without interference from previous installations.

What does a hypervisor view a virtual machine as?

A discrete set of files.

What is a Configuration File in virtualization?

Stores VM's configuration, including VM name, BIOS information, guest OS type, memory size, and number of CPU.

What does a Virtual Disk File do?

Stores the contents of the VM's disk drive.

What is the purpose of a Memory State File?

Stores the memory contents of a VM in a suspended state.

What information does a Log File keep?

Keeps a record of the VM's activity.

What is a Virtual Appliance?

A pre-configured VM created using Open Virtualization Format (OVF), pre-installed with OS and applications, ready to run on a hypervisor.

What does Virtual Infrastructure consist of?

Includes resource pools, CPU, memory, network bandwidth, storage pools, and identity pools.

What is a Virtual Network Interface Card (virtual NIC)?

Appears to guest OS as NIC, has a unique MAC address, and can be bridged to a real network or connected to a virtual network.

What was the total reported cybercrime loss in 2021?

$6.4 billion.

What is the estimated annual cost of cybercrime globally?

$600 billion.

What was the value of the cybersecurity market in 2020?

$156 billion.

What is a Threat in cybersecurity?

A person or organization that seeks to obtain or alter data without the owner's knowledge.

Define Attack in the context of cybersecurity.

A human-originated exploitation of a vulnerability.

What is a Vector in cybersecurity?

A pathway or method used by a hacker to illegally access a network or computer.

What is a Vulnerability?

An opportunity for threats to gain access to individual or organizational assets.

What is a Safeguard?

Protective measures prescribed to meet security requirements such as confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

What does Risk refer to in cybersecurity?

Exposure to danger; also known as exposure.

What are Black Hat hackers?

Criminals who break into computer networks with malicious intent for personal gain.

What defines Gray Hat hackers?

Hackers who look for vulnerabilities without permission but may report them for a fee.

What are White Hat hackers?

Ethical hackers who identify security flaws to recommend improvements.

What is Pretexting?

Pretending to be someone else to gain information.