Blood Bank Final Exam

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156 Terms

1
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What are the three ways you can do a crossmatch?

- Instant spin

- AHG

- Electronic

2
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What is the weak D phenotype?

a quantitative reduction in the amount of D antigen on a RBC

---- no antibody made/normal D epitope -----

3
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What is the partial D phenotype?

a qualitative change in the expression of the D epitope or missing parts of the D epitope

4
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What happens in the "regulator pathway" that forms a Rh Null phenotype?

There is a mutation in the RHAG gene and/or RhAG protein, so even though the RHD and RHCE genes are normal their proteins do no get expressed

<p>There is a mutation in the RHAG gene and/or RhAG protein, so even though the RHD and RHCE genes are normal their proteins do no get expressed</p>
5
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What happens in the "amorph pathway" that forms a Rh Null phenotype?

The RHAG gene and Protein are normal and functioning correctly but a mutation in the RHD/RHCE genes results in their proteins not being expressed

<p>The RHAG gene and Protein are normal and functioning correctly but a mutation in the RHD/RHCE genes results in their proteins not being expressed</p>
6
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weak expression of Kell BGS antigens due to point mutations in the KEL gene

Kmod

7
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weak expression of Kell BGS dues to the lack of XK protein

McLeod phenotype

8
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What null phenotype can be found in Polynesians and Pacific Islanders?

JK (a-b-)

9
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What null phenotype is found in the African American population? What evolutionary advantage comes with it?

Fy (a-b-)

Resistant to Plasmodium vivax

10
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What is the F antigen?

- present when c and e antigen are present (r and R0)

- anti-f is often seen with anti-e and anti-c

11
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What is the G antigen?

Present when either D or C are present

12
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What is the clinical significance of G antibodies?

•Patients with anti-G should receive units negative for D and C antigens

•Pregnant women with anti-D and -C should be investigated for anti-G. If it is only anti-G, they are still candidates for RhIg.

13
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What pre-analytical factors are required for pre-transfusion testing?

- Full name, MRN, and DOB should be on tube and easy to read

- Must be able to obtain the time of draw, date of draw, and the initials of the person who drew it

- SAMPLE MUST BE LABELED BEDSIDE

14
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What does AHG bind?

The Fc portion of IgG

15
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List characteristic components of a DAT

- In-vivo

- Testing patient RBC's

- No enhancement used

- AHG

- Validate negative results with check cells

16
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List characteristic components of a IAT

- In-vitro

- Testing patient plasma/serum

- Liss commonly used for enhancement

- IS → 37 → AHG

- Validate negative results with check cells

17
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What is used to neutralized α-ABO ?

Saliva

18
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What is used to neutralize α-Le ?

Saliva

19
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What is used to neutralize α-P ?

Pigeon Egg Whites

20
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What is used to neutralize α-Sda ?

Urine (Tamm-Horsfall)

21
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What is used to neutralize α-Ch/Rg ?

Fresh Plasma

22
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What transferase does the AA/AO gene code for? What is the sugar?

N-Acetylgalactosaminyl transferase

N-Acetyl-D-galactosamine

23
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What transferase does the BB/BO gene code for? What is the sugar?

Galactosyl transferase

D-Galactose

24
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What transferase does the AB gene code for? What is the sugar?

Both N-Acetylgalactosaminyl transferase and Galactosyl transferase

N-Acetyl-D-galactosamine and D-Galactose

25
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Which antigens have IgM antibodies?

ABO, H, Lewis, Lu

26
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Which antigens have IgG antibodies?

Fy, Kell, Kidd, MN, Rh

27
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Which antigens are carbohydrates?

H, I/i, Lewis

28
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Which antigens are proteins?

ABO, Fy, Kell, Kidd, Lu, Rh

29
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Which Duffy is most common in white people?

Fy (a+b+)

30
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Lack of H or h + lack of Se =

Bombay

31
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Lack of H or h + functional Se =

Para-Bombay

32
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What does the H gene code for? What is it's function?

L-fucosyltransferase which transfers L-fucose on the terminal end of PS2

33
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In regards to the I/i antigens, virtually all adults are ____ and babies are ___

Adults = I

Babies = i

34
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What are the most common haplotypes of the Kell BGS?

k, Kpb, Jsb

35
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These antigens are rich in disulfide bonds

Kell antigens

36
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What are the three antigens of the Kidd BGS?

Jka, Jkb, JK3

37
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If a person is JK null, they can form _________ which will react with any cell that possesses a JK antigen

α-JK3

38
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How can you differentiate JK null RBC's from normal RBC's?

By using 2M Urea, JK null RBC's will not lyse like normal RBC's

39
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Why do "Kidd's Kill"?

The α-JK3 are known for falling below detectable level and then responding with a very strong anmnestic response

40
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What does the Lewis gene code for?

L-fucosyltransferase that adds a fucose on PS1

41
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Nonsecretor (se) + functional Lewis =

Le(a+b-) in secretions

42
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Secretor (Se) + functional Lewis =

Le(a-b+) in secretions

43
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Pregnant women can transiently type as

Le(a-b-)

44
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What is the most common Lewis antigen formed?

Le(a-b+)

45
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Which Lutheran antigen is high frequency?

Lu(a-b+)

46
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Which antigens can absorb reversibly onto RBC's?

Lewis

47
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Where are M and N located?

Glycophorin A

48
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_______ haplotype is 2x as likely as the ________ haplotype

MS / NS

49
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Where are Ss antigens located?

Glycophorin B

50
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______ will be present if Glycophorin B is, _____ will be present depending on what is inherited

U / S or s

51
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If an individual lacks U, that individual would also lack .....

S and s

U-S-s-

52
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R1 =

DCe

53
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R2 =

DcE

54
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R0 =

Dce

55
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Rz =

DCE

56
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r =

dce

57
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r' =

dCe

58
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r" =

dcE

59
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ry =

dCE

60
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_____________ is essential for RhD and RhCE expression

RhAG protein

61
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_____ is the receptor of the Human Parvovirus B19

P

62
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Early abortions are associated with _____ or _____

α-PP1PK or α-P

63
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Which antibodies are clinically significant?

ABO, Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, SsU, Lu, H

64
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- Thermal range >30C

- Titer >1000

- Reactivity strongly enhanced with albumin

- Anti-I

- Capable of binding complement

- Clinically significant

- Associated with disease

Pathological Autoantibodies

65
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- Mild to life threatening intravascular hemolysis

- Broad thermal range (confirm identity w/ thermal amplitude test)

- Occurs in the elderly

Cold Hemagglutinin Disease (CHD)

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- Biphasic

- Intravascular hemolysis

- IgG w/ P antigen specificity

- Most common in children

- Confirm w/ Donath-Landsteiner test

Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH)

67
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- Penicillin

+ DAT IgG

Drug binds RBC membrane → Induces Ab formation → Abs bind drug on RBC membrane → Extravascular hemolysis

Drug adsorption

68
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- IgG

- Reacts best at AHG

- May activate complement

- React w/ high incidence antigens → mimics Rh allo-antibodies (like α-e)

Warm Autoantibody

69
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- Quinidine and Phenacetin

+ DAT C3

Drug-Immune complex forms → Binds nonspecifically to RBC and activates complement → Intra/Extravascular hemolysis

Immune complex

70
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- Cephalosporin

- Non-immunogenic

+ DAT IgG and C3

Modifies RBC membrane → other proteins adsorb to the cell

Protein adsorption

71
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- Methyldopa

- Neoantigen

- Down regulates normal immune system

+ DAT IgG and C3

Induction of Autoimmunity

72
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Associated w/ ABO incompatible blood

- Febrile

- Abdominal, flank, or back pain

- Pain at transfusion site

- Feeling of impending doom

- Hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria

- Hypotension

- Renal failure

- Shock

- DIC

- Positive DAT

Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (AHTR)

73
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An acute non-immune transfusion reaction caused by transfusion of bacteria-contaminated blood component (mostly platelets)

- temperature spike of ≥2C

- rigors

- hypotension

Transfusion associated sepsis (TAS)

74
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- at least 1C spike in temperature

- Chills, nausea or vomiting

- Tachycardia

- Increase in BP

- Tachypnea

Febrile Non-Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (FNHTR)

75
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- IgE

- Urticaria

Acute Allergic Reaction

76
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Usually seen in IgA deficient individuals

- Bronchoconstriction (wheezing)

- Angioedema (tongue swelling)

- Diarrhea

- Hypotension, cardiac arrythmia, loss of consciousness, shock, cardiac arrest

Severe Allergic Reacion

77
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Acute non-immune complication due to too much input and not enough output

- Respiratory distress

- Chest tightness

- Hypertension

- Jugular vein distension

- Elevated central venous pressure

- Pulmonary edema, cardiomegaly, distended pulmonary artery

- BNP

Transfusion associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)

78
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Leading cause of transfusion associated fatalities. Caused by α-HLA/HNA (1 hit) or neutrophils damaging pulmonary endothelium in capillaries (2-hit)

- Respiratory distress

- Severe hypoxemia

- Fever

- Hypotension

Transfusion Associated Acute Lung Injury (TRALI)

79
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Replacement of one total blood volume in 24 hours or replacement of 50% of total blood volume in 3 hours

- May see metabolic and coagulation abnormalities

- Hypothermia

- Chelating affects→ tingling, shivering, light headedness, tetany, hyperventilation

- Hyperkalemia

Massive Transfusion (MT)

80
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Due to:

- Newly formed antibody due to exposure

- Anamnestic response

- Positive DAT

Delayed Serologic/Hemolytic Transfusion reaction (DHTR)

81
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A delayed immune response due to an attack by viable donor lymphocytes

- Maculopapular rash

- Fever

- Watery diarrhea, bloody stools, abdominal pain

- Elevated liver function

- Pancytopenia 3-30 days post transfusion

Transfusion Associated Graft vs Host Disease (TA-GVHD)

82
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A delayed immune complication resulting in thrombocytopenia

- Mostly seen in females of child bearing age

- 1-24 days post transfusion

- Sometimes febrile reactions

- Patient must be previously sensitized to human platelet antigens

Post Transfusion Purpure (PTP)

83
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Non-immune complication of transfusion dependency/chronic transfusion

Iron Overload

84
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What is the deferral period for ASA/ASA-drugs/Feldene (aspirin)?

2 full days (>48 hours)

85
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What is the deferral period for Plavix or Ticlid?

14 days

86
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What is the deferral period for Finasteride or Isotretinoin?

1 month

87
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What is the deferral period for Avodart?

6 months

88
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What is the deferral period for Soriatane?

3 years

89
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What is the deferral period for Tegison?

Permanent

90
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What is the deferral period for Human GH or bovine insulin?

indefinite

91
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What is the deferral period for measles, mumps, typhoid, and yellow fever vaccines?

2 weeks

92
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What is the deferral period for German measles (rubella) and chicken pox (varicella zoster)?

4 weeks

93
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What is the deferral period for HBIG and unlicensed vaccines?

12 months

94
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What is the deferral period for Hep B and Flu vaccines?

no deferral

95
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What is the deferral period for someone who had lived in a malaria-endemic area?

3 years

96
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What is the deferral period for someone who has traveled to a malaria-endemic area?

1 year

97
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What is the deferral period for someone who had lived > 3 months in the Uk or who was associated with a military base in certain European countries between 1980 and 1996?

Indefinite

98
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What are the physical requirements to donate blood products?

- Age >16yo

- Not intoxicated or ill

- No rash or evidence of drug use

- >110 lbs

- <99.5 F (37.5C)

- Women: 12.5 Hgb/ >38% Hct

- Men: 13.0 Hgb/ > 39% Hct

99
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Which diseases are screened with questions only?

Malaria, Prions, CJD/vCJD

100
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Which diseases require a look back?

- HBsAg

- HBV DNA NAT

- total anti-HBc