EMT Quiz 1 West coast

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180 Terms

1
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according to the National EMS scope of practice model, An EMT should be able to

assist a patient with certain prescribed medications

2
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An appropriate of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to

continue to be nonjudmental,compassionate and respectful

3
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An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):

paramedic

4
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cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the

paramedic

5
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contining education in EMS serves to

maintain, update and expand the EMT's knowlwdge and skills

6
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EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publications of:

accidental death and disability: the neglected disease of modern society

7
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if a defibrillator claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should

recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives

8
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obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the

individual EMT

9
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the continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to

identify area of improvement and provide remedial training if needed

10
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the determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patients is based mostly on

EMS research

11
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the EMT certification exam is designed to

ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills

12
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the standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the

state office of EMS

13
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which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT

proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

14
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which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)

A team of health care professionals who are responsible for proving emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

15
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which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge- based failure

An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent info about the drug

16
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which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy

community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

17
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which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS

A 48- year old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

18
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which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training

automated external defibrillation

19
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which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct

The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing

20
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which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describes

off-line

21
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A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than...... hours following the incident

72

22
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A positive TB skin test indicates that

you have been exposed to TB

23
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characteristics of eustress following dispatch to a high-speed motor vehicle collision may include:

increased self-image from well under a challenging situation

24
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gerneral adaption syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases

Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

25
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hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following except:

carbon dioxide deficiency

26
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prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:

offer little or no side protection

27
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quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:

requests sexual favors in exchange for something else

28
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the capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called

resilience

29
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the most effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to:

wear at least three layers of clothing

30
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the most important consideration at the scene of a hazardous material incident is

ensuring your personal safety

31
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the most serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is

substandard or inappropriate patient care

32
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the simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to

wash your hands in between patient contacts

33
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the spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to:

careless handing of sharps

34
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vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you

have been infected with hepatits A in the past

35
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vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:

animals or insects

36
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what should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?

ensure the vehicle is stable

37
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when decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:

allow surface to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions

38
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which of the following infectious diseases confers no protection from reinfection after exposure

syphillis

39
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which of the following is the most significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs

immunity

40
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you have been working at the scence of a major building collapse for eight hours. many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing foucs. this situation is most effectively managed by

requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support

41
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acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:

assault

42
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An EMT would likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she

did not make provisions for contined care of an injured patient

43
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As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:

another EMT

44
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for a do not resucitate (DNE) order to be valid, it must

clearly state the patients medical problem

45
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in many states a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:

is self- supporting and lives by him- or herself

46
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in the eyes of the courts, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates

inadequate patient care was administered

47
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maintaining the chain of evidence at the scenes of a crime should include:

not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons

48
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putrefaction is defined as:

decomposition of the body's tissues

49
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the emts scope of practice within his or her local responses area is defined by the:

medical director

50
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the manner in which the emt must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the

standard of care

51
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two emts witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patients emotional needs

legal but unethical

52
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which aspects of the health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA) most affects EMS personnel?

protecting patient privacy

53
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which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?

A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment

54
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which of the following most accurately defines negligence

deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury

55
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which of the following patients has decison-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment

A conscious and alert women with severe abdominal pain

56
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which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment

A paramedic transfer patient care to an EMT

57
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which of the following situation requires you to notify the appropriate authorities

attempted suicide

58
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which of the following statements regarding good samaritan laws is correct?

such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligences

59
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which of the following type of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated

implied

60
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you arrive at the scene of an apparent death. when evaluating the patient, which of the following is definitive of death?

dependent lividity

61
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A....receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency

repeater

62
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A patients refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:

an informed refusal

63
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All information recored on the PCR must be

considered confidential

64
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any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a

base station

65
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As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. you should:

respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician

66
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calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by

maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible

67
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communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:

elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation

68
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during the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, except:

discouraging the caller from providing care unit the EMS unit arrives

69
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ethnocentrism is defined as:

considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture

70
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in which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?

calm and confident

71
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the patient care report (PCR) ensures

continuity of care

72
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two way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes which mode of communication

simplex

73
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when communicating with a visually impaired, you should

determine the degree of the patients impairment

74
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when providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patients privacy by:

not disclosing his for her name

75
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when relaying patients info via radio, communications should be

brief and easily understood

76
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which of the following incidents does not require a report to be filed with local authorities

cardiac arrest

77
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which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is correct

standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety

78
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which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies

scanner

79
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you are caring for a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. the patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious bc he thinks he is having a heart attach which statements would you say

"its possible that you are expressing a heart attack. i am going to give you for baby aspirin to chew and swallow"

80
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you could be sued for....if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation

slander

81
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after applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should

remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so

82
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in contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:

increased stability from a wider wheelbase

83
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it is essential that you....your equipment to prevent the spread of disease

decontaminate

84
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the....is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle

sacrum

85
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the direct carry is used to transfer a patient:

from a bed to the ambulance stretcher

86
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the extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:

with a deformed humerus

87
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the first rule of safe lifting is to:

keep your back in a straight, vertical position

88
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the most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the

basket stretcher

89
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the most serious consequence of a poorly panned or rushed patient move is:

injury to you or your patient

90
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to minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:

keep the weight as close to your body as possible

91
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when a person is standing upright, the weight of anything lifted and carried in hand is first reflected onto the:

shoulder girdle

92
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when carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid

using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible

93
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when the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifiting

the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae

94
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when using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:

kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over

95
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which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher

draw sheet method

96
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which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique

one at the head, one at the feet, and on each side of the patients torso

97
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which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move

semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

98
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which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?

the majority of a horizontal patients weight is in the torso

99
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which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct

A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patients spinal column

100
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you should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than..... rescuers, regardless of individual strength

4