Equine Preventive Medicine Exam 2

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
0.0(0)
full-widthCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/82

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

83 Terms

1
New cards

This virus has a long incubation period and it is a chronic & deadly disease (not the specific disease):

Lentivirus

2
New cards

Equine Infectious Anemia is considered a:

Lentivirus

3
New cards

True or false: Equids contract EIA through transmission of blood from an infected horse

True

4
New cards

Which is not a typical/common clinical sign of a horse who is actively suffering from EIA?

Hyperexcitability

5
New cards

True or false: Horses can become inapparent/chronic carriers of EIA

True

6
New cards

ELISA or AGID: More sensitive EIA test, more likely to show false positives

ELISA

7
New cards

ELISA or AGID: Definitive EIA test, less likely to show a positive result early on in infection

AGID

8
New cards

What is the appropriate treatment for a horse that receives a final positive diagnosis for Equine Infectious Anemia? (2.5)

Isolation and euthanasia/destruction

9
New cards

True or false: Equine Infectious Anemia is a 'reportable disease'.  If a horse tests positive on a Coggins Test, then the state veterinarian becomes involved in the case

True

10
New cards

Where are parasite eggs shed in?

Feces

11
New cards

Do parasite eggs develop into larvae inside of outside of the horse?

Outside

12
New cards

Where do horses pick up larvae?

Stall/pasture

13
New cards

“Oxyuris equi” are what?

Pinworms

14
New cards

Which parasites do females crawl out of rectum and lay/glue eggs around the rectum?

Pinworms

15
New cards

What is the biggest classic sign of pinworms?

Tail rubbing

16
New cards

How are pinworms diagnosed?

Looking for eggs via scotch tape around anus

17
New cards

Can pinworms be diagnosed with a fecal?

Nope

18
New cards

Which dewormers can be used to treat pinworms?

Benzimidazoles and pyrantel

19
New cards

“Parascaris equorum” are what?

Roundworms

20
New cards

Where do adult and immature larvae live in the horse?

Small intestine

21
New cards

Which parasite is the most important/significant in foals?

Roundworms

22
New cards

Horses are usually resistant to which parasite infections?

Roundworms

23
New cards

Roundworms can cause a what?

Small intestine obstruction

24
New cards

What can result with a poor response to medication and surgery for roundworms?

Colic

25
New cards

What is verminous pneumonia?

Larvae migrating

26
New cards

What are 2 signs of roundworms in foals?

Pneumonia and nasal discharge

27
New cards

When should foals start to be dewormed?

2 months

28
New cards

What type of dewormer is used for roundworms?

Benzimidazoles

29
New cards

“Anoplocephala perfoliata” are what?

Tapeworms

30
New cards

Which type of parasite affects most species of animals?

Tapeworms

31
New cards

Tapeworms are found where (geography)?

Worldwide

32
New cards

What do horses ingest to get tapeworms?

Orbatid mites

33
New cards

How long does it take for tapeworms to develop in the horse?

10 weeks

34
New cards

What season(s) are orbatid mites most prevalent?

Spring, early summer, fall

35
New cards

Where do tapeworms attach themselves to in the horse?

End of small intestine

36
New cards

What contains tapeworm eggs?

Proglottids

37
New cards

How are tapeworms diagnosed (3)?

ELISA, surgery, necropsy

38
New cards

What is the drug of choice for tapeworm treatment?

Praziquantel

39
New cards

When should you deworm for tapeworms?

End of summer/early fall

40
New cards

“Strongylus vulgaris” are what?

Strongyles

41
New cards

How do horses contract strongyles?

Ingesting larvae

42
New cards

What kind of damage do large strongyles cause?

Arterial

43
New cards

Arterial blockage caused by circulating blood clot:

Thromboembolism

44
New cards

Lack of blood flow:

Thrombosis

45
New cards

Inflammation of the abdominal cavity:

Peritonitis

46
New cards

What is the most deleterious GI parasite in the horse?

Large strongyles

47
New cards

How can large strongyles be prevented?

Pick up manure

48
New cards

How can large strongyles be killed?

Common dewormers

49
New cards

“Cyathostomes” are what?

Small strongyles

50
New cards

Where do small strongyles live inside of the horse?

Wall of large intestine

51
New cards

What is the current most important adult worm problem in the horse?

Small strongyles

52
New cards

Small strongyles are very easy or very hard to kill with dewormers?

Very hard

53
New cards

What is the dewormer of choice for small strongyles?

Moxidectin

54
New cards

What is the second choice dewormer for small strongyles?

Ivermectin

55
New cards

“Gasterophilus spp.” are what?

Bots

56
New cards

“Strongyloides westeri” are what?

Threadworms

57
New cards

How are strongyloides passed to foals?

Mare’s milk

58
New cards

“Trichostrongylus axei” are what?

Hairworms

59
New cards

Current deworming practices are heavily dependent on what?

Fecal egg count

60
New cards

Quantitative or qualitative: Fecal egg count

Quantitative

61
New cards

Quantitative or qualitative: Fecal

Qualitative

62
New cards

Fecal egg count or Fecal: Measurement of a certain amount of a certain type of parasite eggs per a certain amount of manure

Fecal egg count

63
New cards

Which is more expensive, fecal egg count or fecal?

Fecal egg count

64
New cards

For fecal egg count, 0-200 EPG is a _____ shedder

Low

65
New cards

For fecal egg count, 200-500 EPG is a _____ shedder

Moderate

66
New cards

For fecal egg count, 500+ EPG is a _____ shedder

High

67
New cards

_____ dewormers kill one at a time

Purge

68
New cards

How often should adult and young adult horses be dewormed with a purge product?

1-2x yearly

69
New cards

How often should foals be dewormed?

Every 2-4 months

70
New cards

What should foals be dewormed with?

Fenbendazole

71
New cards

How often should horses be dewormed with a product containing praziquantel?

1x yearly

72
New cards

How many teeth do adult horses have?

36-44

73
New cards

How many incisors do horses have?

12

74
New cards

How many canines do horses have?

4

75
New cards

How many premolars do horses have?

12-16

76
New cards

How many molars do horses have?

12

77
New cards

The maxilla is _____ than the mandible

Wider

78
New cards

Maxillary teeth are _____ than mandibular teeth

Wider

79
New cards

Continual eruption is opposed by abrasion is called…

Hypsodont teeth

80
New cards

Between ages 2-5, horses shed _____ teeth

24+

81
New cards

“Occlusal Equilibrium” is fancy talk for:

Float

82
New cards

How long is the incubation period of EIA?

1-6 weeks

83
New cards

An AGID test is also called a _____ _____

Coggins test