(quizlet) Pharm E2 - Ortho/Rheum/OBGYN/BH

studied byStudied by 4 people
0.0(0)
learn
LearnA personalized and smart learning plan
exam
Practice TestTake a test on your terms and definitions
spaced repetition
Spaced RepetitionScientifically backed study method
heart puzzle
Matching GameHow quick can you match all your cards?
flashcards
FlashcardsStudy terms and definitions

1 / 333

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no one added any tags here yet for you.

334 Terms

1

FDA pregnancy drug categories

A - fail to demonstrate risk

B - animal studies do not indicate risk & no studies in humans, or animal studies show risk but humans fail to show risk

C - animal studies indicate risk & no human studies (most meds)

D - positive evidence of fetal risk, but certain situations where benefits outweigh risk

X - definite fetal risk, & risks outweigh ant benefits

New cards
2

how can nausea & vomiting be treated in pregnancy?

-pyridoxine (vit B6)

-doxylamine

-metoclopramide/promethazine

-HT3 antagonists (ondansetron)

New cards
3

how can heartburn be treated in pregnancy?

-eating smaller more frequent meals

-antacids (w/low sodium)

-sucralfate

-H2RAs

-PPIs

New cards
4

which antiacids should be avoided in pregnancy?

sodium bicarb, magnesium trisilicate

New cards
5

how can constipation be treated in pregnancy?

-inc. fiber & water, moderate exercise

-drug of choice = bulk forming laxatives (methylcellulose, psyllium husk - not absorbed)

-surfactants - docusate

-stimulants occasionally (senna, bisocodyl)

-osmotic laxatives (miralax, lactulose, sorbitol, mag. salts)

New cards
6

what should be avoided when treating constipation in pregnancy?

prolonged/repeated use of mineral oil - dec. fat soluble vitamins absorption

New cards
7

how can hemorrhoids be treated in pregnancy?

-avoid constipation

-external products preferred - preparation H (hydrocortisone, phenylephrine) & Tucks - constrict blood vessels

-Sitz baths

New cards
8

what is the drug of choice for treating diarrhea in pregnancy?

stool bulking agents

-may also use loperamide

New cards
9

what decreases the relative risk of HTN & preeclampsia in pregnancy?

calcium 1-2 g daily

-watch for constipation

New cards
10

what can be used to treat eclamptic seizures?

magnesium sulfate 4-6 g IV

-avoid benzos, phenytoin

New cards
11

what can be used for chronic management of HTN in pregnancy?

(BP >150-160/100-110)

labetalol, methyldopa, DHP CCBs, nitroprusside or nitroglycerin for rapid tx

New cards
12

how is gestational diabetes treated?

-insulin is drug of choice, dietary modification

-glyburide minimally crosses placenta, metformin

New cards
13

how is acute thromboembolism treated in pregnancy?

low molecular weight heparin (enoxaparin)

-tx throughout pregnancy & 6 weeks after delivery

New cards
14

how are UTIs treated in pregnancy?

ALWAYS, even if asymptomatic

-nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, cephalosporins

New cards
15

what is the drug of choice for pain in pregnancy?

acetaminophen

New cards
16

NSAID use in each trimester

1st & 2nd = cat B

3rd = D (premature closure of ductus arteriosus)

New cards
17

how is postpartum depression treated?

SSRIs, 2nd line = TCAs

-but avoid paroxetine d/t cardiac malformations

New cards
18

what should be supplemented to avoid neural tube defects?

folic acid

New cards
19

tocolytic therapy

drugs used to delay labor/delivery & relax the uterus

-beta agonists (terbutaline), magnesium, CCB, NSAIDs

New cards
20

what is given to high risk women with a history of preterm birth?

17-a-hydroxyprogesterone IM weekly at weeks 16-36

New cards
21

which agents induce labor by facilitating cervical ripening?

prostaglandin analogs (dinoprostone), misoprostol, oxytocin (most common)

New cards
22

potential adverse drug reaction w/oxytocin use

bleeding due to afibrinogenemia

New cards
23

what is most commonly used in epidural infusions?

fentanyl/bupivacaine

New cards
24

epidural side effects

-prolongation of 1st & 2nd stages of labor

-hypotension, pruritus, inability to void

-spinal headaches

New cards
25

synthetic estrogens include

-ethinyl estradiol

-micronized estradiol

-estradiol cypionate

-estradiol valerate

-estropipate

-conjugated estrogens

New cards
26

estrogens: pharmacokinetics

-highly protein bound

-conjugated metabolites excreted in bile

-enterohepatic recycling

-high 1st pass metabolism in liver

New cards
27

which type of patients can receive estrogens alone? **

patients without a uterus (hysterectomy)

-progestins not required to reduce endometrial hyperplasia

New cards
28

adverse effects of estrogens

-uterine bleeding

-endometrial hyperplasia / carcinoma

-inc. breast cancer w/prolonged use

-breast tenderness

-hyperpigmentation

-migraines / HTN

-cholestasis

New cards
29

contraindications to estrogen use

-estrogen-dependent neoplasms

-undiagnosed genital bleeding

-liver disease / thromboembolic disorders

-heavy smokers

New cards
30

which progesterone has anti-mineralocorticoid & anti-androgen effects?

drospirenone

New cards
31

which has higher variability in physiologic effects between agents: estrogens or progestins?

progestins

New cards
32

progestins: physiologic effects

-inc. basal insulin & insulin response to glucose

-competes w/aldosterone in kidney = inc. aldosterone release

-maturation & secretion in endometrium

-may inc. BP & lower HDL

New cards
33

what can be used for long term ovarian suppression if the patient is a poor estrogen candidate?

progestins

-may cause prolonged anovulation & amenorrhea

New cards
34

which HRT therapy should be used in patients who have not had a hysterectomy?

estrogen-progestin therapy

New cards
35

which has a higher dose of estrogen: HRT or low dose oral contraceptives?

low dose oral contraceptives (4-6x)

New cards
36

which dosage form is preferred in women with history of HTN, inc. TG, risk for VTE, and cholelithiasis?

transdermal - avoid 1st pass metabolism in liver

New cards
37

what other agents can be used for vasomotor symptoms of menopause?

-SSRIs, venlafaxine, desvenlafaxine

-gabapentin

-clonidine

New cards
38

how does hormonal contraception work?

selective inhibition of pituitary function resulting in inhibition of ovulation (progestins alone don't always inhibit ovulation)

-negative feedback to GnRH, FSH, LH

-changes in cervical mucus, uterine endometrium, motility & secretion in uterine tubes, dec. likelihood of conception & implantation

New cards
39

what can increase the risk of conception when using contraception?

drugs that increase metabolism of the drug (phenytoin, CYP inducers), antibiotics that inhibit enterohepatic recycling

New cards
40

hormonal contraception: adverse effects

-breakthrough bleeding/failure of withdrawal bleeding

-weight gain, acne, inc. pigmentation, hirsutism

-ureteral dilation (bacteriuria)

-vaginal infections more common & harder to tx

-amenorrhea

-venous thromboembolism, MI, stroke

-cholestatic jaundice

-depression

New cards
41

hormonal contraception: contraindications

-thrombophlebitis, cardiovascular, cerebrovascular issues

-unknown cause of vaginal bleed

-estrogen dependent tumors

-heart failure

-adolescents who haven't undergone epiphyseal closure

-hepatic enzyme inducers

-antibacterials

-pregnancy

New cards
42

what should be administered with postcoital contraceptives?

antiemetics - high incidence of N/V

New cards
43

hormonal contraceptives reduces risk of....

-ovarian cysts

-ovarian/endometrial cancer

-ectopic pregnancy

-iron deficiency

-endometriosis

-acne/hirsutism

New cards
44

when are oral contraceptives normally started?

-1st sunday after onset of menses - avoids withdrawal bleeding on weekends

-pregnancy = 3-4 weeks post delivery

-post abortion = 1st sunday after

New cards
45

how should missed pills be dosed?

single missed pill = take as soon as remembered

two pills = take two a day for two days

three or more = d/c for rest of pills & restart on sunday

New cards
46

what does bleeding on days 1-14 represent on oral contraception? days 15-21?

1-14 = estrogen deficiency

15-21 = progestin deficiency

New cards
47

medroxyprogesterone acetate (depo-provera)

injected every 3 months, but may cause very irregular menstrual bleeding patterns

New cards
48

tamoxifen: mechanism of action

selective estrogen receptor modulator - competitive, partial agonist, inhibitor of estradiol

-agonist in bone & endometrium, antagonist in breast tissue

New cards
49

what is tamoxifen used for?

-palliative care of breast cancer

-breast cancer prevention in high risk

-prevention of loss of lumbar spine bone density

New cards
50

tamoxifen: side effects

-inc. endometrial cancer risk, vaginal bleeding

-thromboembolism

-hot flashes & vomiting

-do not use w/intact uterus

New cards
51

raloxifene: mechanism of action

partial estrogen agonist-antagonist

-estrogenic effects on lipids & bone

-doesn't stimulate endometrium or breast

New cards
52

what is raloxifene used for?

-prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis

-prevention of breast cancer in high risk women

-safe to use in pts w/uterus

New cards
53

how does clomiphene work?

partial estrogen agonist - binds up hypothalamic estrogen receptors to inhibit feedback loop

-also ovulation induction agent

New cards
54

danazol: how does it work & what is it used for?

-weak progestational, androgenic & glucocorticoid effects

-suppresses ovarian function

-treats endometriosis

-can also be used in hematologic/allergic disorders

New cards
55

danazol: side effects

-weight gain/edema

-dec. breast size

-acne/oily skin

-hair growth

-deepening of voice

New cards
56

aromatase inhibitors include

-anastrozole

-letrozole

-exemestane (irreversible)

New cards
57

aromatase inhibitors: side effects

more intolerable than SERMs d/t dec. estrogen = inc. fractures & menopausal like symptoms

New cards
58

rheumatoid arthritis therapy

chronic = NSAIDs, low dose steroids

acute = high dose steroids

-also DMARDs, knee effusions, steroid injections

New cards
59

osteoarthritis therapies

chronic = acetaminophen, NSAIDs, topical analgesics

-also aspirations, steroid injections

New cards
60

traditional DMARDs include

-methotrexate

-hydroxychloroquine

-sulfasalazine

-leflunomide

-generally have a slow onset of action, need to cover w/NSAIDs & steroids

New cards
61

anti-TNFs (biologics) include

-infliximab (remicade)

-certolizumab (cimzia)

-etanercept (enbrel)

-adalimumab (humira)

-golimumab (simponi)

New cards
62

IL-6 receptor antagonist

tocilizumab (actemra)

New cards
63

CD20 inhibitor

rituximab (rituxan)

New cards
64

JAK inhibitor

Tofacitinib (Xeljanz)

New cards
65

other immunosuppressives that can be used in RA include

-azathioprine

-d-penicillamine

-gold

-anakinra (IL-1 antagonist)

-cyclosporine

-cyclophosphamide

these have fallen out of favor due to unfavorable side effects

New cards
66

which DMARDs have the best efficacy-toxicity ratios?

methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine

New cards
67

which DMARD is usually started first in RA patients?

methotrexate

New cards
68

what should be done before initiation of a DMARD?

-TB testing

-vaccinations up to date

New cards
69

which vaccines can be given to patients actively on RA therapy?

killed & recombinant vaccines ONLY (pneumococcal, IM flu, hep B)

-do not give live vaccines when pt is on a biologic -> can cause an actual infection

New cards
70

when is it recommended that patients get their herpes zoster vaccine if on immunosuppressive therapy?

age 50 instead of normally age 60

New cards
71

methotrexate: mechanism of action

Analog of folic acid with high affinity for dihydrofolate reductase (inhibits folic acid in rapidly growing cells)

-cannot make new nucleotides = no new cells

New cards
72

methotrexate: toxicities

-bone marrow suppression

-stomatitis (ulcers)

-diarrhea, hepatotoxicity

-alopecia, N/V

-pulm fibrosis & pneumonitis

New cards
73

methotrexate: contraindications

-pregnancy (abortive)

-renal insufficiency (CrCl <40)

-chronic liver disease

-blood dyscrasias

New cards
74

methotrexate: monitoring includes

-CBC, LFTs, SCr at baseline, monthly x6 mos then every 1-2 mos

-pregnancy status

New cards
75

what must be given with methotrexate?

folic acid 1 mg

New cards
76

leflunomide: mechanism of action

inhibits pyrimidine synthesis = decreased lymphocyte proliferation

New cards
77

which two DMARDs cannot be used together due to significant risk of hepatotoxicity? ***

leflunomide & methotrexate

New cards
78

leflunomide: side effects

-m/c = diarrhea

-hepatotoxicity, immunosuppression, hematologic toxicity

-teratogenic -> needs cholestyramine washout

New cards
79

hydroxychloroquine: mechanism of action

inhibits neutrophil locomotion, chemotaxis eosinophils, impairs complement-dependent antigen-antibody reactions

-least toxic, least potent DMARD (but safest)

New cards
80

what is the benefit to using hydroxychloroquine?

not associated with myelosuppression, hepatotoxicity, or renal insufficiency = less monitoring

New cards
81

hydroxychloroquine: side effects

-GI (N/V/D)

-retinopathy

-inc. skin pigmentation

-rash, alopecia

New cards
82

sulfasalazine: mechanism of action

prodrug cleaved by colonic bacteria into sulfa pyridine & 5-aminosalicylic acid = modulates inflammatory mediators, TNF inhibitor, free radical scavenger

New cards
83

sulfasalazine: side effects

-GI!! N/V/D, high LFTs

-rash, alopecia

-turns urine/stool yellow/orange

New cards
84

sulfasalazine: interactions

-antibiotics

-iron supplements

-warfarin

New cards
85

tofacitinib (xeljanz): mechanism of action

JAK (janus kinase) inhibitor for moderate to severe RA in patients who fail methotrexate therapy

-JAK facilitates phosphorylation & activation of STAT proteins, which regulate inflammatory gene transcription

New cards
86

which two drug classes for RA cannot be used together due to the risk of too much immunosuppression (& infection)? ***

biologics & JAK inhibitors

New cards
87

JAK inhibitors: black box warning

serious infections, lymphomas, other malignancies

New cards
88

when should the dose of JAK inhibitors be reduced?

in patients with significant renal/hepatic dysfunction, or if used with CYP3A4 inhibitors

New cards
89

what should be tested for before starting a JAK inhibitor?

latent TB

New cards
90

biologics: risks

-inc. risk infection

-inc. risk TB (test prior to therapy initiation)

-d/c while pt is sick

-don't give live vaccines

-very little monitoring

New cards
91

what is the black box warning for TNF-alpha inhibitors?

lymphoproliferative cancer

New cards
92

what is a relative contraindication for TNF-alpha inhibitors? **

CHF --> inc. CV death, exacerbations

-AVOID in EF <50%, NYHA class III

New cards
93

what should be given if a patient experiences anaphylaxis to a biologic agent?

epi, benadryl, steroids

New cards
94

how does abatacept (orencia) work?

binds to CD80/CD6 receptors, preventing interactions between antigen-presenting cells & T-cells = preventing T-cell activation

New cards
95

when is abatacept (orencia) used?

not 1st line - used if patients fail TNF-a inhibitors or have a contraindication to them

New cards
96

rituximab: mechanism of action

monoclonal antibody against CD20 protein on B lymphocytes, causing near complete B cell depletion & decreases antigen presentation to T cells

New cards
97

when is rituximab used?

if a patient has failed methotrexate and/or TNF-alpha inhibitors

New cards
98

how must rituximab be given?

as two infusions two weeks apart with pre-treatment

-can be given w/MTX

New cards
99

tocilizumab (actemra): side effects

-hyperlipidemia

-elevated transaminases

-GI perforation

-induces CYP3A4

New cards
100

what is the max amount of intra-articular steroid injections that should be given per year? what can happen if more are done?

-2/3 per year

-inc. joint destruction, tendon atrophy

New cards
robot