PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY ULTIMATE EXAM Questions with 100% corrrect answers + rationales

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Last updated 6:03 PM on 6/10/26
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130 Terms

1
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Where is dopamine produced?

Substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.

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Where is serotonin produced?

Mostly in the Raphe nucleus.

3
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Where is norepinephrine produced?

Locus ceruleus of the pons.

4
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Where is epinephrine produced?

Adrenal glands.

5
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Where is acetylcholine synthesized?

Basal Nucleus of Meynart.

6
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What is the role of the cell body (soma) in a neuron?

Maintains the neuron and synthesizes proteins.

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What is the function of dendrites?

Receive incoming signals from other neurons.

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What is the function of the axon?

Transmits electrical impulses away from the cell body.

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What is the role of the myelin sheath?

Insulates the axon and speeds up signal transmission.

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What is the function of synaptic terminals?

Release neurotransmitters to send signals to the next neuron.

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What is the G-protein linked system?

A signal transduction mechanism where a neurotransmitter activates a receptor linked to a G-protein, which in turn triggers intracellular events.

12
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What are the key components of the G-protein linked system?

Receptor, G-protein, effector enzyme, and second messengers.

13
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What is pharmacokinetics?

The study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and excreted.

14
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What is pharmacodynamics?

The study of how a drug affects the body, including receptor binding, post-receptor effects, and chemical interactions.

15
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What factors affect pharmacokinetics?

Age, weight, liver function, kidney function, genetic factors, and drug interactions.

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What factors affect pharmacodynamics?

Receptor sensitivity, genetic factors, tolerance, and the presence of other medications.

17
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What is an agonist?

A substance that binds to a receptor and activates it, producing a biological response.

18
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What is an antagonist?

A substance that binds to a receptor but does not activate it, blocking the action of an agonist.

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What is a partial agonist?

A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a weaker, or partial, response compared to a full agonist.

20
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What is an inverse agonist?

A drug that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but induces the opposite effect.

21
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What is depolarization?

A change in a cell's membrane potential that makes it more positive, leading to the firing of an action potential.

22
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What is repolarization?

The process of returning the membrane potential back to its resting state after depolarization.

23
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What are the indications for methadone?

Opioid use disorder, chronic pain.

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What are the contraindications for methadone?

Respiratory depression, acute asthma, and paralytic ileus.

25
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What are the side effects of methadone?

Respiratory depression, constipation, nausea, and sedation.

26
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What pharmacological agents are used for opioid withdrawal?

Buprenorphine, methadone, clonidine.

27
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What non-pharmacological treatments are used for substance withdrawal?

Cognitive behavioral therapy, counseling, support groups.

28
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What are common signs of alcohol withdrawal?

Tremors, agitation, sweating, hallucinations, seizures.

29
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What are common signs of opioid withdrawal?

Muscle aches, insomnia, sweating, anxiety, yawning, runny nose.

30
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What are the indications for Campral (Acamprosate)?

Maintenance of abstinence from alcohol in patients who are already abstinent.

31
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What are the contraindications for Disulfiram?

Severe cardiac disease, psychosis, pregnancy.

32
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What is a key side effect of Naltrexone?

Hepatotoxicity.

33
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What patient education is needed for Disulfiram?

Avoid all alcohol-containing products (even in sauces, mouthwash, etc.) to prevent a disulfiram reaction.

34
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What is Vivitrol indicated for?

Alcohol and opioid use disorder.

35
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What are the contraindications for Vivitrol?

Acute hepatitis, liver failure, current opioid use.

36
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What medications are used to treat cravings in substance use disorders?

Naltrexone, Acamprosate, Methadone, Buprenorphine.

37
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What are P450 inducers?

Rifampin, carbamazepine, St. John's Wort.

38
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What are P450 inhibitors?

Fluoxetine, grapefruit juice, ciprofloxacin.

39
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What are typical (1st generation) antipsychotics used for?

Treatment of positive symptoms of schizophrenia (e.g., delusions, hallucinations).

40
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What are atypical (2nd generation) antipsychotics used for?

Treatment of both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

41
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What is a key side effect of typical antipsychotics?

Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).

42
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What is a special consideration for atypical antipsychotics?

Risk of metabolic syndrome (weight gain, hyperglycemia, dyslipidemia).

43
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What is the treatment for positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

Antipsychotics (dopamine antagonists).

44
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What is the treatment for negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Atypical antipsychotics, cognitive behavioral therapy.

45
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What are the symptoms of EPS?

Tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia, tardive dyskinesia.

46
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What treatments are available for EPS?

Anticholinergics like benztropine, dopamine agonists like amantadine.

47
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What are the risk factors for developing EPS?

Use of typical antipsychotics, higher doses, prolonged use.

48
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What is the FDA-approved medication for treating Tardive Dyskinesia?

Tetrabenazine.

49
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How does tetrabenazine work in treating Tardive Dyskinesia?

It inhibits vesicular monoamine transporter 2 (VMAT2), reducing dopamine storage and release.

50
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What are the key signs of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

Hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic dysfunction.

51
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What lab abnormalities are seen in NMS?

Increased creatine phosphokinase (CPK), white blood cell count (WBC), and liver function tests (LFTs).

52
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What are the risk factors for NMS?

Use of antipsychotics, dehydration, agitation, rapid dose increases.

53
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What are the treatments for NMS?

Bromocriptine, dantrolene, cooling measures, and hydration.

54
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How does NMS differ from Serotonin Syndrome?

NMS presents with mutism, muscle rigidity, dysphagia, and abnormal labs, whereas Serotonin Syndrome includes hyperreflexia, clonus, and no abnormal labs.

55
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What are the off-label uses of Abilify?

Treatment of depression (adjunctive therapy), bipolar disorder, and irritability associated with autism.

56
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What is a notable benefit of Abilify compared to other antipsychotics?

It has the lowest risk of sedation among all antipsychotics.

57
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Which second-generation antipsychotic is least likely to cause weight gain?

Latuda.

58
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What are the second and third best options for minimizing weight gain among second-generation antipsychotics?

Abilify (second), Geodon (third).

59
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What is metabolic syndrome?

A cluster of conditions including increased blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol or triglyceride levels.

60
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What are the risk factors for developing metabolic syndrome?

Use of atypical antipsychotics, obesity, sedentary lifestyle.

61
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What patient education is essential for managing metabolic syndrome?

Encourage regular physical activity, a healthy diet, and regular monitoring of blood glucose, cholesterol, and blood pressure.

62
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Which medications increase the risk of galactorrhea?

Second-generation antipsychotics, especially Risperidone.

63
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What is important to know about transitioning to Invega Long-Acting Injectable?

Follow specific guidelines for dosing and monitoring when transitioning from oral formulations to LAIs.

64
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What are some examples of long-acting injectables used in psychiatry?

Relprevv, Risperdal Consta, Invega Sustenna, Invega Trinza, Aristada.

65
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Which psychiatric medications carry black box warnings?

Antidepressants (for risk of suicide), antipsychotics (for increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia), and mood stabilizers like Lithium (toxicity risk).

66
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What are the indications for SSRIs?

Depression, anxiety disorders, OCD, PTSD, panic disorder.

67
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What are common side effects of SSRIs?

Sexual dysfunction, weight gain, nausea, insomnia.

68
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What is the black box warning for SSRIs?

Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors in young adults.

69
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What are contraindications for SSRIs?

Concurrent use of MAOIs, hypersensitivity to the drug.

70
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What are the indications for SNRIs?

Depression, generalized anxiety disorder, chronic pain (fibromyalgia).

71
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What are common side effects of SNRIs?

Increased blood pressure, sweating, insomnia, dizziness.

72
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What is the black box warning for SNRIs?

Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors in young adults.

73
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What are the key signs of Serotonin Syndrome?

Hyperreflexia, clonus, agitation, sweating, hyperthermia.

74
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What is the treatment for Serotonin Syndrome?

Stop serotonergic drugs, administer cyproheptadine, supportive care.

75
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What are the indications for MAOIs?

Atypical depression, treatment-resistant depression.

76
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What are the contraindications for MAOIs?

Concurrent use of SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, and foods high in tyramine (e.g., aged cheeses, smoked meats).

77
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What are common side effects of MAOIs?

Hypertensive crisis, orthostatic hypotension, insomnia.

78
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What patient education is necessary for MAOIs?

Avoid foods high in tyramine, avoid over-the-counter decongestants, and recognize signs of hypertensive crisis.

79
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What are the signs of a hypertensive crisis due to MAOIs?

Severe headache, nausea, vomiting, stiff neck, palpitations, elevated blood pressure.

80
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What is the treatment for hypertensive crisis caused by MAOIs?

Stop the medication, administer phentolamine, and stabilize the patient's temperature.

81
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What is the EMSAM transdermal patch?

A transdermal patch formulation of an MAOI (selegiline) used to treat depression.

82
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What are the indications for TCAs?

Depression, chronic pain, insomnia, OCD (clomipramine).

83
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What are the common side effects of TCAs?

Sedation, anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, constipation), weight gain, orthostatic hypotension.

84
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What are the contraindications for TCAs?

History of cardiac arrhythmias, concurrent use of MAOIs.

85
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What are the indications for Bupropion?

Depression, smoking cessation, ADHD (off-label).

86
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What are common side effects of Bupropion?

Insomnia, dry mouth, weight loss, seizures (dose-dependent).

87
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What are the contraindications for Bupropion?

Seizure disorders, bulimia, anorexia nervosa, abrupt discontinuation of alcohol or benzodiazepines.

88
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What are the off-label uses of Bupropion?

ADHD, bipolar depression.

89
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What are the FDA-approved medications for OCD?

Anafranil (Clomipramine) and Fluvoxamine.

90
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What are the indications for Lithium?

Bipolar disorder, particularly in the prevention of manic and depressive episodes.

91
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What are the side effects of Lithium?

Tremors, polyuria, hypothyroidism, weight gain.

92
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What are the signs of early and late Lithium toxicity?

Early: nausea, vomiting, diarrhea. Late: confusion, ataxia, seizures.

93
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What baseline labs should be obtained before starting Lithium?

Thyroid function tests, renal function tests, pregnancy test.

94
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What is the therapeutic range for Lithium?

0.6-1.2 mEq/L.

95
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How often should Lithium levels be monitored?

Every 4-5 days after starting or adjusting dose, then every 3-6 months.

96
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Why is Lithium considered the gold standard for suicidality in bipolar disorder?

It reduces the risk of suicide in patients with bipolar disorder.

97
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What medications are contraindicated with Lithium?

NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, diuretics (can increase Lithium levels).

98
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What labs need monitoring while on Lithium?

Leukocytosis (WBC), Creatinine, BUN, Sodium (Na+), thyroid function, urine protein, pregnancy test.

99
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What are the indications for Depakote?

Bipolar disorder, epilepsy, migraine prevention.

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What are the side effects of Depakote?

Weight gain, sedation, hair loss, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia.