A&P Chapter 13,14,15 Multiple choice

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1
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1) The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.

A) parasympathetic innervation

B) sympathetic stimulation

C) vagus nerve activity

D) neurosecretory substances

B) sympathetic stimulation

2
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Which of the following does not describe the ANS?

A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands

B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

C) involuntary nervous system

D) general visceral motor system

B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells

3
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Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.

A) sympathetic nervous system

B) cerebrum

C) parasympathetic nervous system

D) somatic nervous system

A) sympathetic nervous system

4
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4) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________.

A) their effectors

B) their efferent pathways

C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters

D) they have no neurotransmitters in common

D) they have no neurotransmitters in common

5
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A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________.

A) anticholinesterase

B) epinephrine

C) norepinephrine

D) a beta-blocker

D) a beta-blocker

6
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The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________.

A) ciliary ganglion

B) pterygopalatine ganglion

C) submandibular ganglion

D) otic ganglion

A) ciliary ganglion

7
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Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.

A) constriction of most blood vessels

B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles

C) increase of heart rate and force

D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera

8
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Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.

A) V

B) VII

C) X

D) X11

C) X

9
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The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.

A) parasympathetic division

B) sympathetic division

C) somatic division

D) peripheral nervous system

A) parasympathetic division

10
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Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.

A) medulla

B) cerebellum

C) hypothalamus

D) thalamus

C) hypothalamus

11
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Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?

A) smooth muscle

B) cardiac muscle

C) skeletal muscle

D) most glands

C) skeletal muscle

12
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Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?

A) salivation

B) dilation of the pupils

C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera

D) elimination of urine

B) dilation of the pupils

13
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3) Which of the following statements is not true?

A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.

B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic are close to visceral organs served.

C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers.

D) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.

A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.

14
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Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.

A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow

B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

C) preganglionic fibers are short

D) preganglionic fibers are long

B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

15
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Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?

A) second cervical

B) third lumbar

C) first coccyx

D) third thoracic

D) third thoracic

16
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Autonomic ganglia contain ________.

A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons

B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors

C) the cell bodies of motor neurons

D) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons

C) the cell bodies of motor neurons

17
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The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.

A) optic

B) oculomotor

C) trochlear

D) abducens

B) oculomotor

18
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Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________.

A) white rami communicantes

B) gray rami communicantes

C) spinal nerves

D) splanchnic nerves

D) splanchnic nerves

19
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Which of the following is not a plexus of the vagus nerve?

A) cardiac

B) pulmonary

C) sacral

D) esophageal

C) sacral

20
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Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.

A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons

B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers

C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons

21
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The parasympathetic tone ________.

A) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration

B) accelerates activity of the digestive tract

C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract

D) causes blood pressure to rise

C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract

22
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22) Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?

A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

B) synapase with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

C) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion

D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron

A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion

23
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The white rami communicantes ________.

A) are found only in the - cord segments

B) are unmyelinated

C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain

D) carry postganglionic fibers to the periphery

C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain

24
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Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.

A) is primarily under sympathetic control

B) is primarily under parasympathetic control

C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input

D) depends very little on autonomic activation

B) is primarily under parasympathetic control

25
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Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?

A) regulation of pupil size

B) regulation of cardiac rate

C) regulation of respiratory rate

D) regulation of body temperature

D) regulation of body temperature

26
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Raynaud's disease ________.

A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

B) is induced by heat stress

C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord

D) is frequently life threatening

A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities

27
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Which sympathetic fibers form the splanchnic nerve?

A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers

B) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered

C) those that synapse with somatic fibers

D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia

D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia

28
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In aging, autonomic inefficiency is often due to ________.

A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments

B) cerebral hemorrhage

C) major loss of axons

D) peripheral vascular changes

A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments

29
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Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.

A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure

30
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33) The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.

A) lumbar splanchnic nerves

B) cephalic plexus

C) pelvic nerves

D) tenth cranial nerve (vagus)

D) tenth cranial nerve (vagus)

31
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Parasympathetic functions include ________.

A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction

B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat

C) lens accommodation for close vision

D) mobilizing storage energy sources

C) lens accommodation for close vision

32
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Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.

A) lateral horn of the spinal cord

B) hypothalamus

C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus

D) inferior colliculus

B) hypothalamus

33
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The possibility of some control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by ________.

A) split brain studies

B) stress-induced hypertension

C) biofeedback

D) nightmares

C) biofeedback

34
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The autonomic NS is divided into sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. In which division would we find muscarinic and nicotinic receptors?

A) sympathetic

B) parasympathetic

A) sympathetic

B) parasympathetic

35
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'Adrenergic' is a descriptive term for the _____________ branch of the ANS.

A) sympathetic

B) parasympathetic

A) sympathetic

36
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The heart receives both sympathetic and parasympathetic inputs. The ________ receptor when activated increases heart rate.

A) alpha 1

B) alpha 2

C) beta 1

D) beta 2

C) beta 1

37
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Bronchospasm seen in asthma can be relieved by administering an inhaled medication called albuterol. This is a sympathomimetic drug which activates the _________ receptor resulting in bronchodilation.

A) alpha 1

B) alpha 2

C) beta 1

D) beta 2

D) beta 2

38
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Sensory nerve endings that are located in the carotid bodies are rich in vagal fibers. How would external stimulation of the carotid artery, such as carotid massage, affect the heart rate?

A) speed the heart

B) slow the heart

B) slow the heart

39
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Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocker often used as an antianginal, antiarrhythmic, and antihypertensive drug. Before giving Inderal to a patient, what should the nurse assess?

A) heart rate and blood pressure

B) temperature

C) respiratory rate

D) reflexes

A) heart rate and blood pressure

40
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1) What is the main function of the rods in the eye?

A) depth perception

B) color vision

C) vision in dim light

D) accommodation for near vision

C) vision in dim light

41
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What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?

A) aqueous humor

B) lens

C) cornea

D) iris

D) iris

42
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Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.

A) cochlea

B) semicircular canals

C) tympanic membrane

D) vestibule

A) cochlea

43
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Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?

A) olfactory receptor cells

B) retinal bipolar cells

C) retinal ganglion cells

D) auditory outer and inner hair cells

A) olfactory receptor cells

44
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The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.

A) semicircular canals

B) macula

C) utricle

D) cochlear duct

B) macula

45
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Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________.

A) eye

B) ears

C) skin

D) nose

C) skin

46
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Farsightedness is more properly called ________.

A) myopia

B) hypopia

C) hyperopia

D) presbyopia

A) myopia

47
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Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?

A) pinna

B) external acoustic meatus

C) tympanic membrane

D) pharyngotympanic tube

D) pharyngotympanic tube

48
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Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________.

A) go to the superior colliculus only

B) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma

C) divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing

D) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma

D) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma

49
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Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.

A) is not a living tissue

B) has no nerve supply

C) has no blood supply

D) does not contain connective tissue

C) has no blood supply

50
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The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?

A) scala vestibuli

B) external acoustic meatus

C) pharyngotympanic tube

D) scala tympani

A) scala vestibuli

51
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13) There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?

A) bipolar cells

B) ganglion cells

C) cone cells

D) rod cells

B) ganglion cells

52
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As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________.

A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

B) outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium

C) inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

D) inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium

A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane

53
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Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?

A) In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic.

B) The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.

C) Complete adaptation occurs in 3-5 seconds.

D) All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.

B) The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.

54
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Taste buds are not found ________.

A) in fungiform papillae

B) in filiform papillae

C) in circumvallate papillae

D) lining the buccal cavity

B) in filiform papillae

55
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What prevents the eyelids from sticking together when the eyes close?

A) lacrimal fluid

B) ciliary gland secretions

C) tarsal gland secretions

D) conjunctival fluid

C) tarsal gland secretions

56
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Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it?

A) sweet organic substances such as sugar and some lead salts

B) sour acids

C) salty metal ions

D) bitter alkaloids

E) umami nucleic acids

E) umami nucleic acids

57
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U.S. employees must wear hearing protection at ________ dB or above.

A) 100

B) 90

C) 80

D) 70

B) 90

58
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Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate?

A) The most common cause is vitamin D deficiency.

B) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.

C) Visual pigment content is reduced in both rods and cones.

D) The impaired vision is caused by reduced cone function.

B) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.

59
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Dark adaptation ________.

A) is much faster than light adaptation

B) results in inhibition of rod function

C) involves improvement of acuity and color vision

D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin

D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin

60
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25) Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________.

A) thalamus

B) occipital lobe of the cortex

C) chiasma

D) superior colliculus

B) occipital lobe of the cortex

61
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In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ________.

A) medial retina

B) lateral geniculate body

C) primary visual cortex

D) optic chiasma

C) primary visual cortex

62
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Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.

A) motor cortex

B) visual cortex

C) brain stem reflex centers

D) back muscles

C) brain stem reflex centers

63
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Motion sickness seems to ________.

A) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins

B) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs

C) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem

D) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

D) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

64
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In the uterus ________.

A) the fetus cannot see and therefore visual cortical connections are not made

B) the fetus can see only light and shadow, but not forms, so partial visual connections are made

C) despite the fact that the fetus cannot see, functional visual cortical connections are established

D) scanty visual connections are made that proliferate greatly during infancy

C) despite the fact that the fetus cannot see, functional visual cortical connections are established

65
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The blind spot of the eye is where ________.

A) more rods than cones are found

B) the macula lutea is located

C) only cones occur

D) the optic nerve leaves the eye

D) the optic nerve leaves the eye

66
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Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.

A) substances in solution

B) stretching of the receptor cells

C) the movement of otoliths

D) movement of a cupula

A) substances in solution

67
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Which of the following could not be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope?

A) macula lutea

B) optic chiasma

C) fovea centralis

D) optic disc

B) optic chiasma

68
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The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________.

A) rods and cones

B) bipolar cells

C) ganglion cells

D) amacrine cells

C) ganglion cells

69
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During dark adaptation ________.

A) the sensitivity of the retina decreases

B) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated

C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods

D) the cones are activated

C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods

70
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Tinnitis, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________.

A) Ménière's syndrome

B) conjunctivitis

C) strabismus

D) motion sickness

A) Ménière's syndrome

71
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41) An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________.

A) spiral organ (of Corti)

B) cupula

C) scala media

D) otoliths

D) otoliths

72
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Which of the following is true about light and vision?

A) Human photoreceptors respond to light in the 100-300 nm range.

B) When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the color being experienced.

C) Light is a form of electromagnetic radiation that slows down as it enters a medium of relatively less density.

D) The greater the incident angle of light striking a refractive surface, the less the amount of light bending.

B) When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the color being experienced.

73
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The tarsal plate of the eyelid ________.

A) is composed of connective tissue surrounding a thin cartilage plate

B) is connected to the superior rectus muscle

C) is connected to the levator palpebrae

D) assists in the act of winking

C) is connected to the levator palpebrae

74
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Which of the following is true about photoreceptors?

A) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.

B) In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis.

C) Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow.

D) If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color perceived is black.

A) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.

75
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Select the correct statement about equilibrium.

A) The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium.

B) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.

C) Hair cells of both types of equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission.

D) Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate.

B) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.

76
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The eye muscle that elevates and turns the eye laterally is the ________.

A) lateral rectus

B) superior oblique

C) inferior oblique

D) medial rectus

C) inferior oblique

77
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The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________.

A) basal cells

B) gustatory hairs

C) fungiform papillae

D) taste buds

B) gustatory hairs

78
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48) Light passes through the following structures in which order?

A) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea

B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

C) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor

D) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor

B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor

79
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Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect ________.

A) refraction

B) accommodation

C) convergence

D) pupil constriction

C) convergence

80
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Which statement about sound localization is not true?

A) It requires processing at the cortical level.

B) It requires input from both ears.

C) It uses time differences between sound reaching the two ears.

D) It is difficult to discriminate sound sources in the midline.

A) It requires processing at the cortical level.

81
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Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?

A) impacted cerumen

B) middle ear infection

C) cochlear nerve degeneration

D) otosclerosis

C) cochlear nerve degeneration

82
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Visible light fits between ________.

A) X rays and UV

B) gamma rays and infrared

C) microwaves and radio waves

D) UV and infrared

D) UV and infrared

83
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Ceruminous glands are ________.

A) saliva glands found at the base of the tongue

B) modified apocrine sweat glands

C) glands found in the lateral corners of your eye

D) modified taste buds

B) modified apocrine sweat glands

84
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The patellar knee jerk is an example of an____

A) extensor thrust reflex

B)stress reflex

C) cross-extensor reflex

D) stretch reflex

D) stretch reflex

85
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the ____ nerve is not a branch of the trigemincal nerve?

A) ophthalmic

B) maxillary

C) cervical

D) mandibular

C) cervical

86
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which of the following nerve does not arise from the brachial plexus?

A) median

B) phrenic

C) radial

D) ulnar

B) phrenic

87
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Which of the following is not an example of a exteroceptor?

A) touch

B) pressure

C) pain

D) temperature

E) baroreceptor

E) baroreceptor

88
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Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation?

A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor

B) The stimulus energy must occur with in the receptor's receptive field

C) The stimulus energy need not be converted into the energy of graded potential

D) A generator potential is the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold

C) The stimulus energy need not be converted into the energy of graded potential

89
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A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ______.

A) femoral

B) iliohypogastric

C) sciatic

D) ilioingiunal

A) femoral

90
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Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the______.

A) lumbar plexus

B) femoral plexus

C) sacral plexus

D) thoracic plexus

C) sacral plexus

91
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The abducens nerve______.

A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye

B) relays sensory information form taste buds on the tongue

C) exits form the medulla

D) if paralyzed, exhibits Bell's palsy

A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye

92
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Inborn or intrinsic reflexes are_____.

A) rapid, predictable, learned responses

B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior

C) autonomic only

D) always mediated by the brain

B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior

93
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Striking the funny bone is actually stimulation to the______.

A) radial nerve

B) sciatic nerve

C) ulnar nerve

D) median nerve

C) ulnar nerve

94
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A reflex that cause muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a_____.

A) Golgi tendon reflex

B) flexor reflex

C) crossed-extensor reflex

D) plantar reflex

A) Golgi tendon reflex

95
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Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.

A) interoceptors

B) photoreceptors

C) nociceptors

D) proprioceptors

C) nociceptors

96
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Which receptors adapt the most slowly?

A) smell receptors

B) pressure receptors

C) C fiber receptors

D) touch receptors

C) C fiber receptors

97
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Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are_____.

A) afferent nerves

B) efferent nerves

C) motor nerves

D) mixed nerves

A) afferent nerves

98
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After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.

A) Wallerian cells

B) Schwann cells

C) dendrites

D) Golgi organs

B) Schwann cells

99
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Regeneration within the CNS_____.

A) is more successful than with the PNS

B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20mm

C) is prevented due to growth inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes

D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial cells

C) is prevented due to growth inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes

100
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In a crossed extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would_____.

A) also flex

B) extend

C) abduct

D) adduct

B) extend