NCAC I and II Exam Secrets Study Guide

These flashcards cover key concepts from the NCAC I and II Exam Secrets Study Guide, including test-taking strategies, treatment modalities, clinical assessment tools, pharmacology, and counseling theories.

According to Secret Key #3, what three groups of questions should a test-taker pay special attention to when reviewing a practice test?

The questions they got wrong, the questions they had to guess on (even if guessed right), and the questions they found difficult or slow to work through.

In the '$5 challenge' for guessing strategies, when should a test-taker eliminate an answer choice?

Only if they are willing to bet $5 that the answer choice is wrong.

What are the four primary treatment modalities for Substance Use Disorder (SUD)?

Detoxification treatment programs, Inpatient (residential) treatment programs, Intensive outpatient programs (IOPs), and Outpatient treatment programs.

What is the duration and structure of an Intensive Outpatient Program (IOP)?

IOPs can last up to $12$ weeks, with structured activities lasting between $9$ and $20$ hours per week.

What are the scoring interpretations for the Michigan Alcohol Screening Test (MAST)?

Scores of $0-2$ indicate no alcohol problem; $3-5$ indicate early to middle problem drinkers; $6$ or more indicate problem drinkers.

How many items are covered in the Addiction Severity Index (ASI)?

The test covers $180$ items.

What are the six dimensions of the American Society of Addiction Medicine (ASAM) multidimensional assessment?

1. Acute intoxication and withdrawal; 2. Biomedical conditions and complications; 3. Cognitive, behavioral, and emotional conditions; 4. Readiness to change; 5. Relapse, continued use, or continued problem potential; 6. Recovery environment.

What are the five characteristics of goals established using the SMART technique?

Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-based.

What are the three stages of relapse?

Emotional relapse, mental relapse, and physical relapse.

What does the Situational Confidence Questionnaire assess?

It assesses the causes of relapse, including internal states and the degree of self-assurance in resisting use in tempting situations.

According to the ACA Code of Ethics (2014), when are counselors justified in disclosing a client's communicable and life-threatening disease to a third party?

When the third party is at serious and foreseeable risk of contracting the disease and the counselor has determined the client's lack of intent to inform them.

Differentiate between primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention strategies for SUD.

Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs; secondary involves screening individuals at risk or in early stages; tertiary involves treating diagnosed individuals to minimize complications.

How do Central Nervous System (CNS) depressants affect brain activity?

They increase gamma-aminobutyric acid ($GABA$), which inhibits or slows brain activity.

What are the 10 categories of substances with DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria for SUD?

Alcohol, Caffeine, Cannabis, Hallucinogens, Inhalants, Opioids, Sedatives, Hypnotics or anxiolytics, Stimulants, and Tobacco.

What occurs during the 'Action' stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Change?

Individuals commence modifying behaviors, follow strategies for success, and begin making alternative lifestyle choices.

What mechanism protects the brain by preventing many substances from leaving the blood to reach the brain?

The blood-brain barrier, formed by microvascular endothelial cells.

Which neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for movement, memory, concentration, and pleasure, and is the primary one implicated in the development of SUD?

Dopamine.

Rank the routes of administration from fastest rate of absorption to slowest.

Smoking is the fastest, followed by injection, snorting, and then oral administration.

What synthetic cannabinoid medication is FDA-approved to treat seizures associated with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome or Dravet syndrome?

Cannabidiol ($Epidiolex$).

What is the 'K-hole' in the context of ketamine use?

A state of dissociative paralysis that some liken to a near-death experience or a lost sense of space and time.

Define 'Sudden Sniffing Death Syndrome' (SSDS).

A fatal heart condition resulting from inhalant use that can occur from a single use or multiple uses.

What is 'blood doping' in the context of performance-enhancing drugs?

The process by which a person uses donor blood or their own previously harvested blood to increase red blood cell production and oxygen availability to muscles.

What are the components of the 'Cognitive Triad' in Aaron Beck's Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)?

Dysfunctional thoughts about oneself, others, and the future.

Describe the four issue roles that block family communication according to Virginia Satir.

Placating (trying to please others), Blaming (pointing outward), Irrelevance (displacing the problem with unrelated activity), and Being overly reasonable (machine-like emotional check).

What are the five stages of group development according to Bruce Tuckman?

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.

Under the Controlled Substances Act, what characterizes a Schedule I drug?

High abuse potential, no accepted medical use, and the potential to cause severe dependence.

What is the role of a DOT Substance Abuse Professional (SAP)?

The SAP serves as a gatekeeper for public safety, evaluating transportation employees who have violated drug and alcohol regulations before they return to safety-sensitive duties.

Which federal regulation pertains specifically to the confidentiality of patient records for those treated for SUD in federally assisted programs?

$42\,CFR\,Part\,2$.