Recalls 6 NP3

B. Patient gently rotates the gastric tube 360 degrees and moves it slightly inward.

One week after gastrostomy tube insertion, the nurse is teaching the patient about preventing buried bumper syndrome. Which action performed by the patient indicates that the teaching was effective?

A. Patient cleans the site with hydrogen peroxide and applies a thick gauze dressing.

B. Patient gently rotates the gastric tube 360 degrees and moves it slightly inward.

C. Patient tightly secures the external bolster against the skin to prevent leakage.

D. Patient rotates the jejunostomy tube daily during the morning bath.

A. "I plan to drive myself to the grocery store the day after I get discharged."

The nurse is teaching the patient post-laparoscopic cholecystectomy on how to resume activity. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? 

A. "I plan to drive myself to the grocery store the day after I get discharged."

B. "I will wait about a week before I pick up my 10-pound cat."

C. "I will start walking around the house immediately when I get home."

D. "I can resume sexual activity whenever I feel ready."

C. Direct the spray away from the nasal septum to prevent irritation.

A nurse is observing a patient self-administer a nasal spray to treat chronic rhinitis. The patient sits upright, blows their nose, inserts the nozzle, and sprays the medication towards the center of the nose or septum. Which corrective instruction should the nurse provide immediately?

A. Tilt the head back further to ensure that the medication reaches the sinuses.

B. Wait 5 minutes before spraying the other nostril.

C. Direct the spray away from the nasal septum to prevent irritation.

D. Squeeze the bottle slowly to produce a fine mist.

C. Each hour during waking hours

When educating a patient on the schedule for incentive spirometry, how often should the nurse instruct the patient to perform 10 breaths?

A. Once every 4 hours

B. Twice a day

C. Each hour during waking hours

D. Only when they feel short of breath

D. To complete the protection, PPSV23 vaccine should be given as well.

A 66-year-old patient received her first pneumonia vaccine, PCV13, one year ago and asks if she needs more pneumonia vaccines. Which of the following statements is correct regarding pneumonia vaccines?

A. A dose of vaccine provides lifetime immunity.

B. PCV13 shots are needed every 5 years.

C. The only vaccine for pneumonia is PCV13 and it is recommended to be paired with a flu shot.

D. To complete the protection, PPSV23 vaccine should be given as well.

C. 50 years of age

At approximately what age do the alveoli begin to lose their elasticity, contributing to a decline in respiratory function?

A. 30 years of age

B. 40 years of age

C. 50 years of age

D. 65 years of age

D. Pectus carinatum

Which specific chest deformity is defined by an anterior displacement of the sternum that increases the anteroposterior diameter, and may occur with conditions like rickets or Marfan syndrome?

a.k.a pigeon chest

A. Pectus excavatum

B. Barrel chest

C. Kyphoscoliosis

D. Pectus carinatum

B. Low relative humidity during the colder months of the year

Which environmental factor should the nurse highlight as increasing the survival rate of the most common cold-causing viruses?

A. High relative humidity indoors from central heating systems

B. Low relative humidity during the colder months of the year

C. Increased exposure to natural ultraviolet radiation

D. Frequent severe temperature fluctuations between indoor and outdoor environments

C. It acts as an expectorant to promote the removal of respiratory secretions.

A client with viral rhinitis was prescribed Guaifenesin. What does this medication do?

A. It blocks the histamine receptors responsible for watery eyes and sneezing.

B. It reduces systemic inflammation to alleviate muscle aches and low-grade fever.

C. It acts as an expectorant to promote the removal of respiratory secretions.

D. It coats the oropharynx to directly soothe a scratchy, sore throat.

D. Snoring, sleepiness, and significant-other report of sleep apnea episodes.

Which of the following combinations represents the classic "3 S's" of Obstructive Sleep Apnea?

A. Snoring, sleeplessness, and shortness of breath.

B. Sleepiness, stridor, and sudden awakenings.

C. Snoring, sleep apnea, and significant oxygen desaturation.

D. Snoring, sleepiness, and significant-other report of sleep apnea episodes.

A. Decreased breath sounds and crackles

When auscultating the lungs of a client who has developed clinically significant atelectasis, which specific breath sounds should the nurse expect to hear over the affected area?

A. Decreased breath sounds and crackles

B. Bronchial breath sounds and expiratory wheezes

C. Expiratory stridor and a pleural friction rub

D. Absent breath sounds and hyperresonance on percussion

A. Administration of peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis

Which of the following prescribed interventions is an official part of the five key elements of the Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP) prevention bundle?

A. Administration of peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis

B. Routine instillation of sterile saline prior to suctioning

C. Maintaining the client in a continuous lateral rotation therapy bed

D. Administration of prophylactic intravenous antibiotics

B. A private room with negative pressure

According to the CDC guidelines, which of the following room assignments and setups is the priority for patients with active tuberculosis?

A. A standard private room located at the end of the hallway

B. A private room with negative pressure

C. A positive-pressure isolation room equipped with high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters

D. A shared room with another patient who has active TB as well (cohorting)

D. Routine, periodic tuberculin skin testing

Which of the following interventions is explicitly recommended by the CDC for maintaining surveillance for TB infection among health care workers (HCWs)?

A. Annual prophylactic administration of multidrug anti-TB therapy

B. Mandatory baseline chest x-rays every 6 months

C. Routine collection of sequential sputum smears

D. Routine, periodic tuberculin skin testing

B. Cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years

What is the specific clinical timeframe required to officially define the presence of chronic bronchitis?

A. Cough and sputum production for at least 6 months in a single calendar year

B. Cough and sputum production for at least 3 months in each of 2 consecutive years

C. Continuous cough for 2 months accompanied by a decrease in lung capacity

D. Sputum production lasting longer than 4 weeks following an acute viral infection

D. "Bend forward while you exhale slowly through your pursed lips."

The nurse observes the patient perform purse-lip breathing. The patient folded their arms over their abdomen, inhaled deeply, and then sat upright while exhaling. What corrective instruction should the nurse provide?

A. "Keep your arms down at your sides to allow for full chest expansion."

B. "Lean back against the chair to reduce the workload on your back muscles."

C. "Inhale rapidly to maximize the volume of air before you exhale."

D. "Bend forward while you exhale slowly through your pursed lips."

B. Plasma-Lyte

Colloid solutions are used to replenish fluid losses from the body and commonly used in patients with hypovolemia. All of the following are colloid solutions except:

A. Albumin solutions

B. Plasma-Lyte

C. Hyperoncotic starch

D. Dextran

A. 2,040 mL

If the patient weighs 85 kilograms, how much daily urine volume does he normally excrete assuming that he is well-hydrated?

A. 2,040 mL

B. 2,020 mL

C. 1,020 mL

D. 1,040 mL

C. Presence of multiple longitudinal furrows on the tongue

An 84-year-old male patient presented with nausea and vomiting, as well as diarrhea for two days. Upon assessment, his skin over the sternum remains slightly elevated for several seconds after pinching. Which additional finding will support the presence of fluid volume deficit?

A. Tent-like skin turgor on the dorsal surface of the hand

B. Dryness of the oral mucous membranes

C. Presence of multiple longitudinal furrows on the tongue

D. Poor skin turgor in the inner aspects of the thighs

B. Decreased BUN, decreased hematocrit, and normal urine sodium

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a patient with heart failure and fluid volume excess. Which set of findings is expected if it is related to chronic aldosterone stimulation?

A. Increased BUN, increased hematocrit, and increased urine sodium

B. Decreased BUN, decreased hematocrit, and normal urine sodium

C. Increased serum osmolality and decreased urine sodium

D. Decreased BUN, increased hematocrit, and elevated serum sodium

B. Muscular twitching and seizures

A nurse is assessing a patient with a serum sodium level of 126 mEq/L. Which clinical finding should the nurse prioritize as a sign of worsening neurological status?

A. Anorexia and nausea

B. Muscular twitching and seizures

C. Dry skin and increased pulse

D. Dizziness and lethargy

B. Decreased BUN and decreased hematocrit

The nurse reviews the laboratory results for a patient with suspected dilutional hyponatremia. Which set of findings supports this diagnosis?

A. Increased BUN and increased hematocrit

B. Decreased BUN and decreased hematocrit

C. Increased urine sodium and normal serum osmolality

D. Increased serum sodium and increased urine specific gravity

C. Flat T waves and U waves

Situation: Ben, a 34-year-old male has a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction. He complained of extreme fatigue and muscle weakness. The nurse also noted hypoactive bowel sounds and irregular heart rate. Ben is placed on a cardiac monitor. Which specific ECG pattern should the nurse expect to see based on his electrolyte imbalance?

A. Peaked T waves and widened QRS complexes

B. Shortened PR interval and tall P waves

C. Flat T waves and U waves

D. Disappearance of the P wave and ST-segment elevation

B. Verifying that the patient has normal bowel function and no signs of an ileus.

The physician ordered sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Before administering this medication, which assessment is a priority to ensure patient safety?

A. Checking the apical pulse for exactly one minute

B. Verifying that the patient has normal bowel function and no signs of an ileus.

C. Ensuring the patient has not consumed any citrus fruits in the last 4 hours.

D. Monitoring the patient for signs of metabolic acidosis.

B. Clear lung sounds with normal rate

Which respiratory assessment finding should the nurse expect in a patient with a magnesium level of 1.3 mEq/L?

A. Respiratory insufficiency due to skeletal muscle weakness

B. Clear lung sounds with normal rate

C. Shallow respirations

D. Bradypnea with deep gasping

A. Tomato juice, cheese, and processed meats

Chloride maintains cellular integrity by providing water balance and maintains acid–base balance. A patient with hypochloremia asked the nurse which food choices are recommended to increase his chloride intake?

A. Tomato juice, cheese, and processed meats

B. Fresh watermelon and distilled bottled water

C. Raw broccoli and free water

D. Fresh blueberries and low-sodium broth

D. Restrict fluids

The client is 24 hours post-op and has a temperature of 38.5°C. Breath sounds reveal basal crackles. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Administer antipyretics

B. Encourage deep breathing and ambulation

C. Notify the surgeon immediately

 

D. Restrict fluids

B. Start IV fluids to restore circulating volume

Which preoperative intervention is most important for this client?

A. Teach incentive spirometry

 

B. Start IV fluids to restore circulating volume

C. Explain surgical procedure

D. Allow the client to walk around to reduce anxiety

C. Document the finding and check vitals in 2 hours

The client’s dressing shows sanguineous drainage 3 hours post-op. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Reinforce the dressing and monitor

 

B. Notify the surgeon immediately

C. Document the finding and check vitals in 2 hours

D. Apply cold compress

C. Negative

The right forearm of a client who had a purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis (TB) is reddened and raised about 3mm where the test was given. This PPD should be read as having which result?

A. Indeterminate

B. Needs to be redone

C. Negative

D. Positive

D. a positive skin test.

A client with a primary tuberculosis (TB) infection can expect to develop:

A. active TB within 2 weeks.

B. active TB within 1 month.

C. a fever that requires hospitalization.

D. a positive skin test.

A. Active infection

A client was infected with tuberculosis (TB) bacillus 10 years ago but never developed the disease. He's now being treated for cancer. The client begins to develop signs of TB. This is known as which type of infection?

A. Active infection

B. Latent infection

C. Superinfection

D. Tertiary infection

C. Sputum culture

A client has received a preliminary diagnosis of tuberculosis. In order to obtain a definitive diagnosis, which test will the nurse expect to see ordered?

A. Chest X-ray - determines lesions in the lungs

B. Mantoux test - not that reliable

C. Sputum culture

D. Tuberculin test - not that reliable

C. To determine the extent of lesions

A client with a positive Mantoux test result will be sent for a chest X-ray. For which reason is this done?

A. To confirm the diagnosis - after sputum culture

B. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed

C. To determine the extent of lesions

D. To determine if this is a primary or secondary infection

B. Cobblestone appearance of the intestinal mucosa

Which symptom is more characteristic of Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis?

A. Bloody diarrhea

B. Cobblestone appearance of the intestinal mucosa

C. Continuous inflammation of the colon

D. Rectal bleeding

D. Terminal ileum

A client presents with a recurrence of Crohn's disease. Which area of the alimentary canal does the nurse suspect is involved?

A. Ascending colon

B. Descending colon

C. Sigmoid colon

D. Terminal ileum

D. Hypokalemia

A client with Crohn's disease is admitted with fever, weight loss, leg cramping, diarrhea, frequent premature ventricular contractions, and abdominal pain. Which laboratory finding should be treated first?

A. Hypoalbuminemia - d/t malnutrition or protein loss

B. Leukocytosis

C. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

D. Hypokalemia