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249 Terms

1
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Which structural feature enables influenza viruses to enter and exit host cells?

Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase spikes

2
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A virusoid differs from a viroid in that it:

Requires a helper virus for replication

3
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Which of the following is NOT considered a cytopathic effect of viral infection?

Mononucleated cell morphology

4
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Which of the following is NOT considered a cytopathic effect of viral infection?

Tail fibers- bind to specific receptors on the host cell

5
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Which best describes specialized transduction?

Transfer of host genes adjacent to a prophage upon excision

6
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In the context of microbial ID, which method involves conversion of fatty acids to volatile esters analyzed via gas chromatography

FAME

7
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Which step in the viral life cycle is unique to animal viruses and not observed in bacteriophages?

Assembly of new virions

8
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A hemagglutination inhibition assay is used to detect:

The presence of antibodies against a virus

9
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What causes the sharp increase in the one-step viral growth curve?

Simultaneous host cell lysis and virion release

10
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Which of the following is most likely to be found in a +ssRNA virus?

RNA that can serve directly as mRNA

11
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Which of the following would not be considerd a phenotypic biochemical trait for identifying bacteria?

16S rRNA gene sequence

12
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A provirus differs from a prophage in that:

A provirus cannot be excised and re-enter the lytic cycle

13
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Enantiomers differ from each other in:

The spatial arrangement of atoms around a chiral center

14
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Which of the following is an organism that obtains its energy from the transfer of electrons originating from chemical compounds and its carbon from an inorganic source?

Chemoautotroph

15
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The molecular structures of glucose, galactose, and fructose are examples of:

Structural isomers

16
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Which is the location of electron transport systems in prokaryotes?

The cytoplasmic membrane

17
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Which of the following is not a name for the cycle resulting in the conversion of a two-carbon acetyl to one ATP, two CO2, one FADH, and three NADH molecules?

Calvin cycle

18
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What distinguishes glycogen from cellulose?

Glycogen has branched a-1,4 and a-1,6 linkages; celluloe has B-1,4 linkages

19
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Modified glucose molecules like NAG and NAM are essential for:

Bacterial cell well biosynthesis

20
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Glycosidic bonds form through:

Dehydration between monosaccharides

21
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Which of the following are two products of the light-dependent reactions?

NADPH and ATP

22
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EMB agar is an example of which of the following?

a selective medium, a differential medium, and a complex medium

23
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A conjugated protein composed of a lipid and a polypeptide would be classified as a:

Lipoprotein

24
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Which method distinguishes bacterial species based on protein mass spectra?

MALDI-TOF

25
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Amphipathic molecules are critical for biological membranes because they:

Orient into bilayers that isolate internal cell environments

26
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If a bacterial strain can metabolize only D-glucose but not L-glucose, this demonstrates:

Optical isomer discrimination

27
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The products of B-oxidation feed directly into which metabolic pathway?

Krebs cycle

28
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Which of the following must occur in a fermentative pathway to allow glycolysis to continue?

NADH must be reoxidized to NAD+

29
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Which functional group is involved in the fermentation of peptide bonds?

Carboxyl and amino

30
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What is the primary purpose of the transition (bridge) reaction?

To convert pyruvate into acetyl-CoA for entry into the Krebs cycle

31
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Which pathway is used when a microbe requires nucleotides and amino acids more than ATP?

Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP)

32
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Which of the following is produced during substrate-level phosphorylation in glycolysis?

ATP

33
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In a redox reaction, the molecule that gains electrons is:

Reduced

34
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Which best describes an apoenzyme?

An enzyme lacking its required cofactor or coenzyme

35
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Where does oxidative phosphorylation occur in prokaryotes?

Cytoplasmic membrane

36
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Why does FADH2 produce fewer ATP than NADH during electron transport

It donates electrons later in the ETS, pumping fewer protons

37
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What is the main function of photosystem II?

Initiation of electron flow and ATP generation

38
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What does the pressence of a ‘halo’ around colonies on blood agar indicate?

Hemolytic activity

39
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A microbiologist inoculates a flask of nutrient broth with a smaller number of Bacillus subtillis cells and incubates it at 37 degrees C. After 12 hours, the culture reaches stationary phase. Which of the following best explains why bacterial cells in this phase are less susceptible to antibiotics that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis?

Cells in stationary phase are not actively dividing, so peptidoglycan synthesis is minimal

40
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A previously unknown bacterial isolate grows evenly throughout a thioglycolate tube. Genetic analysis reveals it lacks catalse but produces superoxide dimutase (SOD). Which classification best fits this organism?

Aerotolerant anaerobe

41
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Which of the following genes would not likely be encoded on a plasmid?

Gene encoding enzymes for glycolysis

42
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Which of the following scenarios would most likely lead to plasmolysis in a gram-negative bacterium?

Sudden exposure to a medium with 10% NaCl

43
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During which phase of the bacterial growth curve would you expect the highest metabolic uniformity and susceptibility to antibiotics?

Log phase

44
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A bacterial culture has a doubling time of 1 hour. You start with 1,000 cells at 8 AM. Assuming ideal conditions and no cell death, approximately how many cells with be present at 12:00 PM?

16,000

45
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Which type of RNA catalyzes peptide bond formation during translation?

rRNA

46
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If a prokaryotic cell were treated with a topoisomerase inhibitor, it would likely:

Lose its ability to package DNA

47
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Why does DNA polymerization proceed in the 5’-3’ direction, but not in the reverse?

The 5’ phosphate of the incoming dNTP can be hydrolyzed to drive bond formation

48
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If a DNA region has a high GC content, how would this affect DNA denaturation

More energy would be required to disrupt hydrogen bonding

49
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If a mutation alters the structure of a tRNA anticodon loop, which process is most likely to fall?

Proper base pairing with mRNA codon

50
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If a prokaryote lacks a functional DNA gyrase, what cellular process would be most impaired?

DNA replication under topological stress

51
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What is a psychrophile?

An organism that thrives at extremely low temperatures

52
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Which class of lipid includes ring structures and functions as hormones?

Steroids

53
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Why are phospholipids considered amphipathic?

They contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic heads

54
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Which enzyme is not typically found in obligate anaerobes?

Superoxide dismutase and catalase

55
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A dehydration synthesis reaction involves:

Removal of water to link monomers

56
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A microbiologist uses a Petroff-Hausser chamber to count bacteria and reports 1.2 × 10^6 cells/mL. What is the main limitation of this approach if the researcher wants to evaluate the effectiveness of an antibiotic?

It counts live and dead cells indiscriminately

57
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Which feature is shared by both enveloped and non-enveloped viruses?

Protein capsid

58
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Why do jams and dried meats often not require refrigeration to prevent spoilage?

Low water activity

59
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Why type of bond links nucleotides in a single strand of DNA?

Phosphodiester bond

60
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Which of the following is found at the 3’ end of a DNA strand?

Hydroxyl group

61
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Why does horizontal gene transfer (HGT) make it difficult to classify bacteria?

It allows bacteria to inherit traits from unrelated species

62
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Which of the following correctly matches the typical size range of each type of biological entity?

Virus (20-300 nm), Bacterium (1-10 um), Plant/Animal Cell (10-100 um)

63
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Which of the following is a correct usage of binomial nomenclature?

Myxococcus xanthus

64
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Which of the following statements about refraction is true?

Light waves bend due to changes in speed when entering a new medium

65
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Which factor does NOT increase resolution in microscopy?

Increasing magnification aperture

66
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What is the purpose of immersion oil in microscopy?

To reduce light scattering and increase resolution

67
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Which microscope technique is best for viewing unstained live cells?

Phase-contrast microscopy

68
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What is taxonomy?

The classification of organisms based on evolutionary relationships

69
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Which of the following is NOT a prokaryotic microorganism?

Protozoa

70
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Which group of microorganisms includes only photosynthetic members?

Algae

71
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What characteristic distinguishes archaea from bacteria?

Archaea have different membrane lipids and genetic sequences

72
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Which of the following microorganisms are most closely related to humans?

Fungi

73
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What is the primary difference between TEM and SEM?

TEM uses transmitted electrons, while SEM uses scattered electrons

74
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Which staining technique differentiates bacteria based on cell wall composition?

Gram staining

75
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What is the function of a mordant in staining?

To help fix the primary stain onto the target structure

76
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What is the primary difference between direct and indirect immunofluorescence?

Direct uses a primary antibody tagged with a fluorochrome, while indirect uses a secondary antibody tagged with a fluorochrome

77
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Why must samples for fluorescence microscopy be stained with flurochromes?

Fluorochromes bind to cellular components and emit visible light when excited

78
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Which of the following best describes numerical aperture in microscopy?

It is a measure of a len’s ability to gather light

79
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Which phenomenon occurs when light waves bend around small objects or openings?

Diffraction

80
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Which type of microscope uses a cone of light so that light only hits the specimen indirectly, producing a bright image on a dark background?

Darkfield microscope

81
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Which type of microscope uses multiple lenses to magnify a specimen?

Compound microscope

82
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Ziehl-Neelsen staining, a type of ____ staining, is used to diagnose Mycobacterium tuberculosis

acid-fast staining

83
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What is the main function of the eukaryotic Golgi apparatus?

Protein modification and transport

84
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How do prokaryotic ribosomes differ from eukaryotic ribosomes?

Prokaryotic ribosomes are smaller (70s) than eukaryotic ribosomes (80s)

85
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What is the primary component of bacterial cell walls?

Peptidoglycan

86
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Why do mitochondria and chloroplasts suport the endosymbiotic theory?

They have their own DNA and ribosomes similar to bacteria

87
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What distinguishes Gram-negative bacteria from Gram-positive bacteria?

Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides

88
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What happens to a bacterial cell placed in a hypertonic solution?

It undergoes plasmolysis as water leaves the cytoplasm

89
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What is the main function of lysosomes in eukaryotic cells?

Digestion of cellular waste and foreign materials

90
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What distinguishes archaeal cell walls from bacterial cell walls?

Archaeal cell walls do not contain peptidoglycan

91
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Which bacterial structure is involved in horizontal gene transfer

Pili

92
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What is the function of bacterial capsules?

Protection against desiccation and immune evasion

93
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Which of the following cell wall components is unique to gram-negative cells?

Lipopolysaccharide

94
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Which bacterial structure is important for adherence to surfaces?

Fimbriae

95
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Which of the following organelles is not part of the endomembrane system?

Peroxisome

96
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What role do prokaryotes play in nitrogen fixation?

They convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia

97
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Which of the following is an example of mutualism?

A bacterium in the human gut that helps digest complex carbohydrates

98
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What differentiates Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria?

Gram-positive bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer

99
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Which of the following genera includes nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

Rhizobium

100
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Which of the following is NOT a form of horizontal gene transfer in bacteria?

Binary fission