BNAT- Exam 1

Match the person to their typical care facility: Patients

Hospital

Match the person to their typical care facility: Clients

Home Care Agency

Match the person to their typical care facility: Residents

Long-Term Care Center

What is the focus of Hospice Care?

People who are dying

Which are roles of the CNA in the interdisciplinary team?

Direct patient care; Reporting findings; ADLs

What is care focused on the patient as a person rather than a task?

Person focused care

Who is in charge of the nursing staff per shift?

Charge Nurse

Who does the CNA answer to in the chain of command?

Registered Licensed Nurse

What is a disease where recovery is not likely and death is imminent?

Terminal disease

What is a disease that is ongoing and controllable but has no cure?

Chronic disease

What is a disease that is sudden and recovery is expected?

Acute disease

Where are services provided for a Home Care Client?

Where the person lives

What type of facility provides complex nursing care to residents?

Skilled Nursing Care

What type of care is provided to hospital patients?

Inpatient and outpatient care

Where does a patient go if they are too sick for home but don't need a hospital?

Rehab/Sub Acute Facility

What are the purposes for healthcare agencies to exist?

Disease prevention; Health promotion; Diagnosis and treatment; Rehabilitation

What is the term for an infection that develops in a person with a weakened immune system?

Opportunistic infection

What is the term for a small living plant or animal seen only with a microscope?

Microbe

What is Person Directed Care?

Treat patient as a person, not a task; allow independence and freedom of choice when possible; promote growth and development; cultivate a relationship of caring and respect.

What is Institutionalized Care?

The opposite of Patient Directed Care; task oriented; patient is a number, procedure, or task; no patient input or independence.

What is Holistic Care?

A care approach that looks at the whole person including cultural, psychosocial, physical, and spiritual needs.

Why is Person Directed Care important?

It maintains patient dignity; helps patients keep a sense of self; allows participation in care decisions; provides autonomy; helps patients cope with illness and disability.

What is an Ombudsman?

An advocate for the patient/resident; resolves grievances; protects resident rights.

What is cultural competence?

Understanding that culture influences health beliefs, practices, thinking, and behavior.

What should you do to practice cultural competence?

Do not judge; respect cultural traditions; include cultural and religious practices in the care plan.

What rights do patients have?

To be informed; refuse treatment; privacy and confidentiality; personal choice; grievances; personal items; freedom from mistreatment; freedom from restraints; quality of life; safe environment.

What is HIPAA?

Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act; federal law that safeguards Protected Health Information.

What does HIPAA protect?

Security, accessibility, and confidentiality of Protected Health Information.

What is PHI?

Protected Health Information.

What are examples of HIPAA violations?

Looking at a patient chart when it is not your patient; leaving charts or computer screens open; sharing patient information with people not involved in care; taking photos without written permission; posting patient or facility information on social media.

What should you do to protect patient information?

Keep computer screens away from public viewing; log off; do not discuss PHI in front of others; never leave charts unattended; shred patient information; do not take photos or videos without permission.

What can happen if you violate HIPAA?

Civil penalties; fines; criminal penalties; loss of license or certification; loss of job; legal action.

What does OBRA require?

Nursing centers must maintain or improve quality of life, health, and safety.

How does OBRA protect residents?

It protects residents from abuse, neglect, theft, and other mistreatment.

What is a mandated reporter?

A person required to report known or suspected abuse or neglect.

What is negligence?

Failure to provide proper care or services.

What is malpractice?

Working outside your scope of practice or failing to provide proper care.

What is scope of practice?

What you can and cannot legally do as a CNA.

What are the 5 steps of the Nursing Process?

Assessment; Diagnosis; Planning; Implementation; Evaluation.

What is a Care Plan?

A plan that describes the resident’s care, needs, goals, and how care will be provided.

Who develops the Care Plan?

The healthcare team.

Who delegates tasks to the CNA?

The nurse.

What are the 5 Rights of delegation?

Right Task; Right Circumstances; Right Person; Right Directions/Communication; Right Supervision.

What are reasons you might refuse a delegated task?

The task is outside your scope of practice; you are not trained or prepared; the task could be unsafe.

What is Standard Precautions?

Precautions used for all patients whenever care is given.

What does Standard Precautions prevent the spread of?

Blood; body fluids; non-intact skin; mucous membranes.

What is the chain of infection?

Source; Reservoir; Portal of Exit; Method of Transmission; Portal of Entry; Susceptible Host.

What are the methods of transmission?

Air; Direct contact; Indirect contact; Droplet; Vehicle; Vector.

What is a portal of exit?

A way germs leave the body, such as the eyes, nose, mouth, or a cut in the skin.

What is a portal of entry?

A way germs enter the body, such as the eyes, nose, mouth, or a cut in the skin.

What is an HAI?

Healthcare Associated Infection.

What are common causes of HAIs?

Poor hand hygiene; contaminated equipment; normal flora getting into the wrong place.

What does MDRO mean?

Multidrug Resistant Organism.

What is C. diff?

An infection that can cause foul watery diarrhea and is a high risk for elderly patients.

What are Transmission Based Precautions also called?

Isolation Precautions.

When are Isolation Precautions used?

For known or suspected high-risk person-to-person transmission infections.

What are the 3 types of Transmission Based Precautions?

Airborne; Droplet; Contact.

What are Airborne Precautions?

Used when tiny molecules stay suspended in the air for a long time; examples include tuberculosis, measles, and chickenpox.

What are Droplet Precautions?

Used for germs spread through droplets from coughing, sneezing, or spitting.

What are Contact Precautions?

Used for person-to-person direct contact or person-to-object indirect contact.

What does PPE mean?

Personal Protective Equipment.

What types of PPE are used?

Gowns; gloves; protective eyewear; masks.

What does PPE mean?

Personal Protective Equipment

What does doff PPE mean?

Take PPE off.

What should you do if you get a BBP exposure?

Wash it immediately; report it to the Charge RN; treat it through Employee Health.

What is an Exposure Control Plan?

A plan that identifies staff at risk for BBP and OPIM exposure and explains what to do after an exposure.

When must staff be trained on the Exposure Control Plan?

Upon hire and yearly; staff must be retrained for new or changed tasks involving possible exposure.

What are the 2 tiers of precautions?

Standard Precautions and Transmission Based Precautions.

When can hand sanitizer be used?

When hands are not visibly soiled.

What action helps loosen microbes during handwashing?

Friction.

What is the minimum time for handwashing using friction?

15–20 seconds.

What are ways a CNA can prevent the spread of infection?

Hand hygiene; proper PPE; clean equipment; respiratory etiquette; careful laundry handling; follow isolation instructions.

What is contaminated?

Unclean and may contain pathogens.

What is clean?

Not contaminated.

What is a communicable disease?

A disease that can spread from one person to another.

What is disinfection?

Destroying pathogens but not all spores.

What is sterilization?

Destroying all microorganisms including spores.

What are the 2 agencies that govern resident room requirements?

OBRA and CMS.

How many people can be in a resident room?

1–4 people.

How many windows to the outside are required?

At least 1 window.

What must rooms have direct access to?

Hallway.

What type of privacy must residents have?

Full visual privacy.

What must each person in a room have?

Their own closet with shelves.

Where should personal items be?

Within reach.

What must be in the room or very close by?

Toilet/bathing area.

What system must rooms, bathrooms, and showers have?

Call system.

What temperature should resident rooms be?

71°F–81°F.

What is Supine?

Flat on the back.

What is Semi Fowler’s?

Head of bed 30 degrees; knees bent 15 degrees.

What is Fowler’s?

Head of bed 45–60 degrees.

What is High Fowler’s?

Head of bed 60–90 degrees.

What are Trendelenburg positions?

Physician-order-only positions.

What is Trendelenburg?

Feet are above the head.

What is Reverse Trendelenburg?

Head is above the feet.

What type of bed is used for morbidly obese patients?

Bariatric bed.

What is a bariatric bed?

A wide bed with a high weight capacity for morbidly obese patients.

What are the 4 types of bed making?

Open bed; Closed bed; Occupied bed; Surgical bed.

What is a Chux?

A protective pad placed on the bed.

What is a draw sheet used for?

Helps with repositioning and prevents skin shearing; can be used to lift if necessary.

What is the order of linens before making a bed?

Bottom sheet; Chux; Draw sheet; Top sheet; Blanket; Bedspread if needed; Pillowcases.