official gda midterm

Question #: 1 A child presents to your office with his adoptive parents for his first dental visit. The parents report on the medical history that the child has fetal alcohol syndrome. What facial characteristics can you expect to note clinically on head and neck exam
I. Thin upper lip
II. Flat mid-face
III. Small, widely spaced eyes
IV. Deformed teeth and enamel defects

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. I, II and IV
F. all of the choices
G. none of the choices

E. I, II and IV

Question #: 2 Rubella is the leading cause of what development defect in the developed world?
A. Blindness
B. Deafness
C. Attention Deficit Disorder
D. Congenital heart defects

B. Deafness

Question #: 3 Tetracycline, an antibiotic and known teratogen, is responsible for what defect in teeth?
A. Missing lateral incisors
B. Small, malformed molars
C. Brown and yellow staining and discoloration
D. Neonatal teeth

C. Brown and yellow staining and discoloration

Question #: 4 Which of the following illegal drugs is related to high addiction rates in mother and unborn baby, respiratory distress, severe withdraw symptoms including irritability and convulsions and higher incidence of HIV transmission from mother to fetus? A. PCP
B. Heroin
C. Cocaine
D. Marijuanae Alcohol

B. Heroin

Question #: 5 The capability of a cell to give rise to several different kinds of specialized cells is known as:
A. Induction
B. Complexity
C. Critical period
D. Pluripotential

D. Pluripotential

Question #: 6 Which of the following is true about diagnostic radiation in relation to pregnant patients?
A. The FDA states diagnostic radiation is not contraindicated in pregnant patients
B. Use of a lead apron with a thyroid collar is indicated
C. The risk of birth defects from the radiation from one full mouth series (FMX) is 9 in 1 billion
D. It is important to communicate and educate expecting patients so that all parties feel comfortable with treatment options
E. All of the choices

E. All of the choices

Question #: 7 What FDA classification is given to drugs that have been proven safe in animal fetal studies but there are currently no adequate, well-controlled studies in humans?
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D
E. Category X

B. Category B

Question #: 8 Which of the following hormones is released by the mother in response to stress that can cause birth defects in the developing fetus?
A. Cortisone
B. Testosterone
C. Growth hormone
D. Secretin
E. Estrogen

A. Cortisone

Question #: 9 What organ system is most targeted by maternal alcohol consumption in the developing fetus?
A. Cardiovascular (Heart and blood vessels)
B. Pulmonary (lungs)
C. Neural (Brain and spinal cord)
D. Gastrointestinal (Stomach and intestines)

C. Neural (Brain and spinal cord)

Question #: 10 What medication is appropriate for pain management following a dental procedure for a patient that is pregnant?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Codeine
C. Aspirin
D. Toradol
E. Acetaminophen

E. Acetaminophen

Question #: 11 Which of the following are consequences of poor maternal nutrition on the developing fetus?
A. Lower IQ
B. Increased risk of diabetes
C. Increased heart disease and high blood pressure
D. Abnormal brain development
E. All of the choicesBonus

E. All of the choicesBonus

Question #: 1 Which of the following is not a biological mechanism of growth?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Accretion
C. Hyperplasia
D. Convergence
E. All of the above are mechanisms of growth

D. Convergence

Question #: 2 The peak velocity of growth in infancy happens at 4 months of age.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 3 Which stage of childhood is defined by the eruption of permanent teeth and results in a mixed dentition?
A. Early childhood
B. Middle childhood
C. Late childhood

B. Middle childhood

Question #: 4 Statement 1: According to the Rule of 5s a baby will have approximately 25cm of growth in the first year of life. Statement 2: Growth of approximately 10cm per year is expected from age 1 until puberty.
A. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is true.
B. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
C. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
D. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is false.

B. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.

Question #: 5 At what age is the head circumference expected to reach its adult size?
A. 10 years
B. 6 years
C. 21 years
D. 1 year

B. 6 years

Question #: 6 Growth in weight is on average fastest in spring and growth in height fastest in autumn.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 7 Where is human growth hormone or somatotropin secreted in the body?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Pituitary gland
C. Adrenal gland
D. None of the above

B. Pituitary gland

Question #: 8 Which of the following nutrients is associated with protein synthesis and its deficiency can lead to loss of hair?
A. Iodine
B. Zinc
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin C
E. Magnesium

B. Zinc

Question #: 9 What body part experiences the most growth in the first year after birth?
A. Head
B. Heart
C. Torso
D. Arms
E. Femur

A. Head

Question #: 10 Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding gametogenesis?

A. In a meiotic division the chromosome number is reduced from diploid to haploid.
B. During meiosis division occurs and chromosome number is reduced from 43 to 26.
C. The only haploid cells in the body are the egg and the sperm and they each contain 23 chromosomes.
D. Gametogenesis is important because it ensures the same number of chromosomes from one generation to the next.

B. During meiosis division occurs and chromosome number is reduced from 43 to 26.

Question #: 11 In what part of the uterus does fertilization occur?
A. Infundibulum
B. Ampulla
C. Isthmus
D. Mesosalpinx
E. Ovarian ligament

B. Ampulla

Question #: 12 What structure is the earliest site of nutrient exchange in the developing fetus?
A. Lacunae
B. Synchtiotrophoblast
C. Cytotrophoblast
D. Uterine lining
E. Blastocyst

A. Lacunae

Question #: 13 Which germ layer is the primary contributor to the central and peripheral nervous systems?
A. Ectoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Endoderm

A. Ectoderm

Question #: 14
Statement 1: Spina Bifida Occulta is often found as an incidental finding when performing imaging because it does not present with any symptoms.
Statement 2: Spina Bifida Cystica often results in paresthesia or anesthesia in the saddle area.

A. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is true.
B. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
C. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.
D. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is false.

A. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is true.

Question #: 15 Which of the following is an adult derivative of the midgut?
A. Appendix
B. Stomach
C. Gallbladder
D. Liver
E. Rectum

A. Appendix

Question #: 16 Which stage in lung maturation is defined by a transition to autonomous gas exchange?
A. Terminal Sac Stage
B. Glandular Stage
C. Alveolar Stage
D. Psuedoglandular Stage

C. Alveolar Stage

Question #: 17 The most frequent site for an ectopic pregnancy to occur is which of the following?
A. Isthmus of the uterine tube
B. Ampulla of the uterine tube
C. Abdomen
D. Ovary
E. Cervix

B. Ampulla of the uterine tube

Question #: 18 True or False: Meckel's Cartilage is a derivative of pharyngeal arch 1 and contributes to the formation of the mandible.
A. True
B. False

A. True

Question #: 19 Which of the following hormones is detected in a positive pregnancy test? A. Somatotropin
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Testosterone
D. Estrogen
E. Androgens

B. Human chorionic gonadotropin

Question #: 20 The sperm can live in the female genital tract for up to 48 hours thus why conception can occur even if ovulation is delayed.
A. True
B. False

A. True

Question #: 21 Which of the following statements is false?
A. Methamphetamines can cause decreased heart rate of both mother and baby.
B. Marijuana use during pregnancy results in a limitation in oxygen supply to the fetus.
C. Injectable narcotics users have a higher risk of passing HIV to he developing fetus.
D. Cocaine enters the fetal circulation and takes much longer to metabolize by the fetus than by the mother.

A. Methamphetamines can cause decreased heart rate of both mother and baby.

Question #: 22 Which FDA Drug Risk Classification includes medications that have no controlled studies on animals or human?
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D

C. Category C

Question #: 23
Statement 1: The alar plate brings sensory information away from the spinal cord. Statement 2: The basal plate brings motor information to the spinal cord.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. Statment 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.

B. Both statements are false.

Question #: 24 What is the adult analogue of the third aortic arch?
A. Maxillary artery
B. Ductus Arteriosus
C. Stapedial arteries
D. Common Carotid artery

D. Common Carotid artery

Question #: 25 The stomodeum is the primordial to which of the following structures?
A. Ear
B. Eye
C. Chin
D. Mouth
E. Tongue

D. Mouth

Question #: 26 Which two pharyngeal arches produce adult derivatives in the hyoid?
A. Arch 1 and Arch 2
B. Arch 2 and Arch 3
C. Arch 3 and Arch 4
D. Arch 4 and Arch 5
E. Arch 5 and Arch 6

B. Arch 2 and Arch 3

Question #: 27 What is the fate of pharyngeal arch 5?
A. Laryngeal and pharyngeal musculature
B. Stylopharyngeus
C. Hyoid cartilage
D. Muscles of facial expression
E. None of the above

E. None of the above

Question #: 28 What is the fate of pharyngeal cleft 1?
A. External auditory meatus
B. Malleus
C. Tympanic Membrane
D. Hyoid

A. External auditory meatus

Question #: 29 Match the correct Cranial Nerve and its function.
A. Optic Nerve; Sense of Smell
B. Trochlear; Inward and Downward Eye Movement
C. Abducens; Facial Expression
D. Trigeminal; Extraocular Eye Movements
E. Spinal Accessory; Swallowing

B. Trochlear; Inward and Downward Eye Movement

Question #: 30 Which if the following bones forms from the maxillary prominence?
A. Frontal
B. Nasal
C. Zygomatic
D. Mandible

C. Zygomatic

Question #: 31 True or False: The thyroid gland is formed out of the pharyngeal apparatus. A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 32 A patient with Down's Syndrome presents to your office for a comprehensive new patient examination. Which of the following intramural findings might you expect to see in regards to the tongue?
A. Microglossia
B. Macroglossia
C. Ankyloglossia

B. Macroglossia

Question #: 33 Treacher Collins clinical presentation includes all of the following except:
A. Underdeveloped facial bones
B. Hearing loss
C. Deformed ears
D. Normal intelligence
E. Mandibular hypoplasia

E. Mandibular hypoplasia

Question #: 34 The nasolacrimal duct separates the nasal cavity and the oral cavity preventing communication and will rupture in week 7.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 35 Which of the following cranial nerves is not associated with innervation of the tongue?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. X
D. XI
E. XII

D. XI

Question #: 36 What is the most appropriate patient positioning for an individual with Pierre Robins syndrome?
A. Completely supine in the dental chair
B. Upright so the airway is not compromised
C. Semi-upright with head tilted back and head flat
D. You are unlikely to see this patient in your office because they rarely survive into early childhood.

B. Upright so the airway is not compromised

Question #: 37 The Millard Advancement technique to repair clef lips aims to hide the surgical scar where?
A. The alae of the nose
B. The vestibular mucosa
C. The philtrum of the upper lip
D. The nasolacrimal groove

C. The philtrum of the upper lip

Question #: 38 A patient presents to your practice 22 weeks pregnant and requires root canal. You plan to refer to her to your favorite endodontist. What is the appropriate medication for pain management of this patient until procedure can be completed?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Codeine
C. Aspirin
D. Toradol
E. Acetaminophen

E. Acetaminophen

Question #: 39 Which of the following is an example of a Class X medication?
A. Accutane
B. Acetaminophen
C. Lidocaine
D. Amoxicillin
E. Sudafed

A. Accutane

Question #: 40 The green area shown in the figure can be identified as which facial prominence?
A. Frontonasal
B. Maxillary
C. Mandibular

A. Frontonasal

Question #: 41 What organ system is most targeted by maternal alcohol consumption in the developing fetus?
A. Cardiovascular (Heart and blood vessels)
B. Pulmonary (lungs)
C. Neural (Brain and spinal cord)
D. Gastrointestinal (Stomach and intestines)

C. Neural (Brain and spinal cord)

Question #: 42 The basal plate is located in the posterior and dorsal part of the spinal cord and contains motor neurons.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 43 A 25 week pregnant patient presents to her obstetrician for examination. The obstetrician is concerned with increased stress levels due to traumatic life events and the over-secretion of which is the following hormones?
A. Cortisone
B. Testosterone
C. Growth hormone
D. Secretin
E. Estrogen

A. Cortisone

Question #: 44 Which of the following is true about diagnostic radiation in relation to pregnant patients?
A. The FDA states diagnostic radiation is never appropriate in pregnant patients.
B. Use of a lead apron with a thyroid collar is indicated.
C. The risk of birth defects from the radiation from one full mouth series (FMX) is 9 in 100. D. It is not necessary to communicate and educate expecting patients radiation exposure. E. All of the above statements were true.

B. Use of a lead apron with a thyroid collar is indicated.

Question #: 45
Statement 1: The result of meiosis I in oogenesis is the separation of a homologous pair of replicated chromosomes.
Statement 2: The result of meiosis II is the separation of sister chromatids into four haploid daughter cells.

A. Both statements are correct.
B. Both statements are incorrect.
C. Only Statement 1 is correct.
D. Only Statement 2 is correct.

A. Both statements are correct.

Question #: 46 Deficiency of which of the following vitamins is related to the development of rickets, or defective mineralization and calcification of the bones that causes bowing and fracture?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin D

Question #: 47 Which is the following types of cells are the only haploid cells in the body? A. Stem cells
B. Neural crest cells
C. Gametes
D. Dermal cells
E. Red blood cells

C. Gametes

Question #: 48 Which pharyngeal arch gives rise to the muscles of mastication?
A. Arch 1
B. Arch 2
C. Arch 3
D. Arch 4
E. Arch 5

A. Arch 1

Question #: 49 What is the classification of the cleft lip shown in the photo?
A. Unilateral Complete
B. Unilateral Incomplete
C. Bilateral Complete
D. Bilateral Incomplete

A. Unilateral Complete

Question #: 50 The capability of a cell to give rise to several different kinds of specialized cells is known as:
A. Induction
B. Complexity
C. Critical period
D. Pluripotential
E. Repercussion

D. Pluripotential

Question #: 51 Which of the following is not a sign of supine hypotensive disorder in pregnant women?
A. Tachycardia
B. Weakness
C. Nausea
D. Sweating
E. Drop in blood pressure

A. Tachycardia

Question #: 52 The effects of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome are only apparent in infants and toddlers and never continue to effect an individual into teenage and adult years.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 53 What do aortic arch 5, pharyngeal arch 5 and pharyngeal pouch 5 have in common?
A. All are related to the common carotid artery
B. All give rise to structures in the ear
C. They have no derivatives
D. They are all related to development of the tongue

C. They have no derivatives

Question #: 54 Which of the following is TRUE of marijuana exposure to the fetus during pregnancy?
A. Marijuana will not cross the placenta.
B. There is increased risk of miscarriage with marijuana use.
C. Babies are likely to have a higher than average birth weight.
D. There are no developmental delays seen later in life.

B. There is increased risk of miscarriage with marijuana use.

Question #: 55 It is unnecessary to use a lead apron with a thyroid collar when taking radiographs of a pregnant patient.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 56 Meckel's cartilage provides the model for which of the following structures? A. Maxilla
B. Mandible
C. Medial Pterygoid
D. External auditory meatus
E. Temporal bone

B. Mandible

Question #: 57 Which of the following do patients with spend bifida have an increased risk of allergy to?
A. Penicillin
B. Sulfa drugs
C. Ragweed
D. Latex
E. Peanuts

D. Latex

Question #: 58 Approximately how many cells are included in the morula?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 4

B. 16

Question #: 59 During what week has folding occurred forming a c-shaped structure for the developing embryo and establishing cranial and caudal ends?
A. Week 2
B. Week 4
C. Week 8
D. Week 12

B. Week 4

Question #: 60 Which teeth are included in the premaxillary segment?
A. Central incisors
B. Canines
C. Premolars
D. First molars

A. Central incisors

Question #: 61 What structure can be identified by the green line on the provided figure?
A. Terminal sulcus
B. Copula
C. Hypopharyngeal eminence
D. Tublerculum impar

A. Terminal sulcus

Question #: 1 Which of the following is not a common symptom of COVID-19 in young children?
A. Fever
B. Cough
C. Pneumonia
D. Diarrhea
E. Vomiting

E. Vomiting

Question #: 2 Pregnant women are more at risk for contracting COVID-19 and have a higher morbidity rate that an individual that is not pregnant.
A. True
B. False

B. False

Question #: 3 Which of the following do patients with spend bifida have an increased risk of allergy to?
A. Penicillin
B. Sulfa drugs
C. Ragweed
D. Latex
E. Peanuts

D. Latex

Question #: 4 At what week can the heartbeat begin to be detected on ultrasound?
A. Week 4
B. Week 5
C. Week 8
D. Week 12
E. Week 15

B. Week 5

Question #: 5 The effects of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome are apparent in infants and toddlers and can continue to effect an individual into teenage and adult years.
A. True
B. False

A. True

Question #: 6 Which of the following is not a sign of supine hypotensive disorder in pregnant women?
A. Tachycardia
B. Weakness
C. Nausea
D. Sweating
E. Drop in blood pressure

A. Tachycardia

Question #: 7 Maternal exposure to harmful substances can affect the developing fetus during any trimester and is dependent on the critical period.
A. True
B. False

A. True

Question #: 8 Growth in height is fastest in the spring.
A. True
B. False

A. True

Question #: 9
Statement 1: Early childhood is defined by the eruption of the first primary teeth.
Statement 2: Late childhood is the pre-pubertal period and is defined by significant motor development.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. Statement 1 is true. Statement 2 is false.
D. Statement 1 is false. Statement 2 is true.

A. Both statements are true.

Question #: 10 A patient in her second trimester presents to your office for a routine dental restoration. What is the best choice of local anesthetic for pregnant women that need to undergo routine dental procedures?
A. Articaine
B. Mepiviciane
C. Prilocaine
D. Lidocaine

D. Lidocaine

Question #: 11 Rubella is the leading cause of what development defect in the developed world?
A. Blindness
B. Muscular dystrophy
C. Attention Deficit Disorder
D. Congenital heart defects
E. None of the above

E. None of the above

Question #: 12 The capability of a cell to give rise to several different kinds of specialized cells is known as:
A. Induction
B. Complexity
C. Critical period
D. Pluripotential
E. Repercussion

D. Pluripotential

Question #: 13 Which of the following is NOT true about diagnostic radiation in relation to pregnant patients?
A. The FDA states diagnostic radiation is appropriate in pregnant patients and no changes need to be made to protocol.
B. Use of a lead apron with a thyroid collar is indicated.
C. The risk of birth defects from the radiation from one full mouth series (FMX) is 9 in 1 billion
D. It is important to communicate and educate expecting patients so that all parties feel comfortable with treatment options
E. All of the above statements were true.

E. All of the above statements were true.

Question #: 14 What FDA classification is given to drugs that have been proven to cause fetal abnormalities during development and the risk of use always outweighs any possible benefit?
A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
D. Category D
E. Category X

E. Category X

Question #: 15 A 25 week pregnant patient presents to her obstetrician for examination three weeks follow-ing the death of her parent. The obstetrician is concerned with increased stress levels due to this traumatic event and the over-secretion of which is the following hormones?
A. Cortisone
B. Testosterone
C. Growth hormone
D. Secretin
E. Estrogen

A. Cortisone

Question #: 16 What organ system is most targeted by maternal alcohol consumption in the developing fetus?
A. Cardiovascular (Heart and blood vessels)
B. Pulmonary (lungs)
C. Neural (Brain and spinal cord)
D. Gastrointestinal (Stomach and intestines)

C. Neural (Brain and spinal cord)

Question #: 17 A patient presents to your practice 22 weeks pregnant and requires root canal. You plan to refer to her to your favorite endodontist. What is the appropriate medication for pain management of this patient until procedure can be completed?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Codeine
C. Aspirin
D. Toradol
E. Acetaminophen

E. Acetaminophen

Question #: 18 Which of the following is not true of the Rule of 10's?
A. The child must be 10 months of age.
B. The child must weigh 10 pounds.
C. The child's white blood cell count must be less than 10,000.
D. The hemoglobin must be at least 10 grams.

A. The child must be 10 months of age.

Question #: 19 The Millard Advancement technique to repair clef lips aims to hide the surgical scar where?
A. The aloe of the nose
B. The vestibular mucosa
C. The philtrum of the upper lip
D. The nasolacrimal groove

C. The philtrum of the upper lip

Question #: 20 The cleft pictured in the figure is an example of a ______ cleft.
A. Incomplete bilateral
B. Complete unilateral
C. Incomplete bilateral
D. Complete bilateral

D. Complete bilateral

Question #: 21 Which ethnic group is most likely to have a cleft lip or palate?
A. South Asians
B. Africans
C. Europeans
D. Americans

A. South Asians

Question #: 22 The premaxillary portion of the palate DOES NOT contain which of the following?
A. Lateral incisors
B. Central incisors
C. Incisive fossa
D. First premolars

D. First premolars

Question #: 23 What is the most appropriate patient positioning for an individual with Pierre Robins syndrome?
A. Completely supine in the dental chair
B. Upright so the airway is not compromised
C. Semi-upright with head tilted back and head flat
D. You are unlikely to see this patient in your office because they rarely survive into early child-hood.

B. Upright so the airway is not compromised

Question #: 24 Which of the following is not a typical characteristic of Treacher Collins syndrome?
A. Hearing loss
B. Underdevelopment of the zygoma
C. Below average intelligence
D. Crowded teeth and shortened rami

C. Below average intelligence

Question #: 25 Which facial prominence gives rise to the zygomatic bone?
A. Frontonasal
B. Maxillary
C. Mandibular
D. None of the above

B. Maxillary

Question #: 26 A child presents to your office with a diagnosis of Down Syndrome. He needs several occlusal restorations and his parents have consented to have you treat him in the office. On exam you note which clinical finding which may lead to difficulty in isolation and control of the tongue?
A. Microglossia
B. Macroglossia
C. Ankylglossia

B. Macroglossia

Question #: 27 Which of the following cranial nerves is not associated with innervation of the tongue?
A. CN V
B. CN VII
C. X
D. XI
E. XII

D. XI

Question #: 28 Which pharyngeal arches contribute to the formation of the tongue?
A. I, II,
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, VI
D. I, II, III, IV
E. I, II, IV, V

D. I, II, III, IV