NAPLEX Vaccine + Travelers

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Last updated 3:10 AM on 7/10/26
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144 Terms

1
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The type of vaccine that does not have a good immune response in children < 2 years

polysaccharide

2
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Polysaccharide vaccines do not have a good immune response in patients < ___ years

2

3
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What type of vaccine is Pneumovax 23?

polysaccharide

4
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Which type of vaccine increases immune response in infants?

conjugate

5
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What type of vaccine is Prevnar 20?

conjugate

6
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What type of vaccine is Menveo?

conjugate

7
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Which type of vaccine is the most similar to the actual disease and provides a strong, long-lasting immune response?

live

8
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Mneumonic for Live Vaccines

MICRO-VY

9
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MICRO-VY for live vaccines

MMR

10
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MICRO-VY for live vaccines

intranasal influenza

11
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MICRO-VY for live vaccines

cholera

12
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MICRO-VY for live vaccines

rotavirus

13
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MICRO-VY for live vaccines

oral typhoid

14
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MICRO-VY for live vaccines

varicella

15
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MICRO-VY for live vaccines

yellow fever

16
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Increasing the interval between the doses of a vaccine given in a series does not diminish the effectiveness after completion of the series, but it _______

delays complete protection

17
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Decreasing the interval between doses of a vaccine can interfere with the _______

antibody response

18
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______ can interfere with live vaccine replication and a separation period may be required

antibodies

19
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The interval for separating MMR vaccine or Varicella vaccine between antibody products is _______

3-11 months

20
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Most live vaccines are withheld until the child is _____ of age, when the maternal antibodies are depleted (maternal antibodies passed from mother to baby before birth reduce the infant’s response to live vaccines)

12 months

21
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Which live vaccine is an exception to withholding till the child is 12 months of age and CAN be given to infants?

rotavirus

22
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What type of vaccine can be given at any time?

inactivated

23
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Which vaccine series is started at birth?

hepatitis B

24
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Live vaccines can cause a false negative with tuberculin skin test (TST) for diagnosing latent TB. Options to reduce this risk are:

give the live vaccine on the same day as the TST, wait 4 weeks after a live vaccine to perform the TST, administer TST first and then give the live vaccine

25
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Live vaccine and Antibody spacing:

Vaccine —> ______ —> antibody-containing product

2 weeks

26
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Live vaccine and Antibody spacing:

Antibody-containing product —> ______ —> Vaccine

>= 3 months

27
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Live vaccines can cause mild systemic reactions that can occur _____ after the vaccine is given (after an incubation period)

3-21 days

28
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Which vaccine can cause mild cold-like symptoms, such as runny nose

intranasal influenza

29
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Which vaccines are started at 2 months?

PCV15 or PCV20, DTaP, Hib, polio, rotavirus

30
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Which vaccines are given at >= 12 months?

MMR, varicella

31
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Which vaccines are given at 11-12 years?

meningococcal, HPV, Tdap

32
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Which vaccines are given at pregnancy?

flu, RSV, Tdap

33
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Which vaccines are given at >= 50 years?

shingles (herpes zoster vaccine), pneumococcal

34
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Which vaccine is given at >= 75 years?

RSV

35
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Which vaccine should be given in patients with diabetes?

pneumococcal (19-49 years), hep B (if >= 60 years and not previously vaccinated)

36
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Shingrix has 2 doses that are given ________ apart

2-6 months

37
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Meningococcal vaccine has 2 doses: 1 dose at age 11-12 years, and 1 dose at age ______ years

16

38
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Pneumococcal vaccine is typically given in older adults (>= 50 years), but can be given in younger adults (19-49 years) if they have the following conditions:

diabetes, sickle cell disease + other causes of asplenia, immunodeficiency

39
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Which vaccines are given in healthcare professionals?

flu (annually), Hep B, Varicella, MMR (if no demonstrated immunity)

40
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Which vaccines are given in Sickle Cell Disease and other causes of asplenia?

Hib, pneumococcal, meningococcal

41
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Which vaccines are given in immunodeficiency?

pneumococcal, shingles (herpes zoster vaccine) (>= 19 years)

42
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Which vaccines are given in HIV patients (immunodeficiency)?

pneumococcal, shingles (herpes zoster vaccine) (>= 19 years), meningococcal, Hep A, Hep B

43
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Pediarix

DTaP + Hep B + IPV

44
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Havrix

Hep A

45
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Vaqta

Hep A

46
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What are the 3-dose Hep B vaccines?

Energix-B, Recombivax HB

47
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What are the 2-dose Hep B vaccines?

Heplisav-B

48
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Gardasil 9

HPV

49
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When to use 2-dose series for Gardasil 9 (HPV)?

if started before age 15

50
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When to use 3-dose series for Gardasil 9 (HPV)?

if started at age 15 or older

51
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Afluria

flu shot for ages >= 6 months

52
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Fluarix

flu shot for ages >= 6 months

53
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FluLaval

flu shot for ages >= 6 months

54
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Fluzone

flu shot for ages >= 6 months

55
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Flucelvax

egg-free flu shot for ages >= 6 months

56
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Flublok

egg-free flu shot for ages >= 18 years

57
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Fluzone High-Dose

flu shot for ages >= 65 years

58
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Fluad

flu shot for ages >= 65 years

59
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FluMist

live intranasal flu vaccine

60
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FluMist is for healthy people ages _______

2-49 years

61
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ProQuad

MMR + Varicella

62
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Which vaccines do you store in the freezer?

MMR, Varivax

63
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MenQuadfi

MenACWY (meningococcal)

64
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Menveo

MenACWY (meningococcal)

65
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Bexsero

MenB (meningococcal)

66
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Trumenba

MenB (meningococcal)

67
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Penbraya

MenABCWY (meningococcal)

68
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Capvaxive

PCV21 (pneumococcal)

69
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Vaxneuvance

PCV15 (pneumococcal)

70
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Rotarix

RV1 (rotavirus)

71
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RotaTeq

RV5 (rotavirus)

72
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Abrysvo

RSV vaccine

73
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Beyfortus

Nirsevimab

74
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Beyfortus drug class

RSV monoclonal antibody

75
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Synagis

Palivizumab

76
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Synagis drug class

RSV monoclonal antibody

77
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Which vaccines are SC only?

yellow fever, dengue, smallpox, monkeypox

78
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RabAvert

rabies vaccine

79
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Which vaccines can be give IM or SC?

M-M-R II, MMRV, varicella, PPSV23, IPV

80
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Which vaccines is given intranasal?

FluMist

81
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Which vaccine is given PO?

typhoid, rotavirus

82
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Vivotif

live PO typhoid vaccine

83
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Which vaccine is stored in either the fridge or freezer?

M-M-R II

84
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Prophylaxis for Traveler’s Diarrhea?

bismuth subsalicylate

85
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The dose for Loperamide after the first stool is ____ mg, then it’s 2 mg after each subsequent loose stool, up to a max dose of 16 mg/day by Rx, or 8 mg/day OTC

4

86
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The dose for Loperamide after the first stool is 4 mg, then it’s ___ mg after each subsequent loose stool, up to a max dose of 16 mg/day by Rx, or 8 mg/day OTC

2

87
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The dose for Loperamide after the first stool is 4 mg, then it’s 2 mg after each subsequent loose stool, up to a max dose of _____ mg/day by Rx, or 8 mg/day OTC

16

88
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The dose for Loperamide after the first stool is 4 mg, then it’s 2 mg after each subsequent loose stool, up to a max dose of 16 mg/day by Rx, or ____mg/day OTC

8

89
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Loperamid can be used as self-treatment for up to _____ days, if sx persist, a healthcare provider should be seen

2

90
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The antibiotics that can be used for TD are _______

azithromycin, quinolones, rifaximin

91
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________ is the preferred antibiotic for severe TD + dysentery

azithromycin

92
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Do not use BSS in patients with an ASA allergy, _______________

pregnancy, renal insufficiency, gout, ulcer, anticoagulants

93
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Preferred antibiotic for TD ppx?

rifaximin

94
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Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium _______

salmonelle typhi

95
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Typhim Vi

inactivated IM typhoid vaccine

96
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Vivotif (live PO typhoid vaccine) should be completed ≥ _____ prior to travel

1 week

97
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Typhim Vi (inactivated IM typhoid vaccine) should be completed ≥ _____ before the expected exposure

2 weeks

98
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Cholera is a bacterial infx caused by _____

vibrio cholerae

99
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Which traveler’s infection has “rice-water stools” as its most common sx (watery diarrhea)

cholera

100
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Vaxchora

live PO cholera vaccine