HCS 215 Chapter 13 Test Bank

1) Keeping blood on the left side of the heart from mixing with the blood on the right side is a function of what structure(s)?

A) valves

B) arteries

C) septum

D) apex

E) chordae tendineae

C

2) The primary site of exchange between blood and interstitial fluid occurs across what type of blood vessel?

A) arteries

B) veins

C) arterioles

D) venules

E) capillaries

E

3) When blood moves through the body it travels in a circular pattern. The general pattern of blood flow follows which sequence of vessels as it leaves the heart?

A) arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

B) arteries, veins, venules, arterioles, capillaries

C) arterioles, arteries, capillaries, venules, veins

D) veins, venules, capillaries, arterioles, arteries

E) veins, capillaries, venules, arterioles, arteries

A

4) Although blood is a fluid, nearly half its volume is composed of cells. The most numerous cells are ________. The remainder of the cells are ________, which help the body defend itself against foreign particles and microorganisms.

A) erythrocytes : leukocytes

B) erythrocytes : platelets

C) leukocytes : erythrocytes

D) platelets : leukocytes

A

5) The circulatory system consists of two divisions and is supplied with blood by different sides of the heart. The right heart supplies blood to the ________ circuit, whereas the left heart supplies blood to the ________ circuit.

A) pulmonary : systemic

B) systemic : pulmonary

C) oxygenated : deoxygenated

D) superior (upper body) : inferior (lower body)

E) arterial : venule

A

6) Which statement best describes parallel flow in the circulatory system?

A) The organs of the body are arranged in a parallel circuit to allow adequate flow and pressure to all body systems and maintain homeostasis of blood pressure.

B) Parallel flow refers to deoxygenated blood only and not to oxygenated blood.

C) Parallel flow refers to the flow of blood just to the heart itself, which keeps it oxygenated at all times.

D) In the systemic circuit blood flows from one organ directly to the next, hence in parallel.

E) Parallel flow refers to the flow of electrical impulses in the heart.

A

7) Blood supply to the heart comes from

A) coronary arteries.

B) cerebral arteries.

C) aorta.

D) blood within the ventricles.

E) blood within the atria.

A

8) Which of the following statements best describes a portal system?

A) Blood flows from one capillary bed to another, bypassing general circulation.

B) The portal system allows enough pressure to be generated to close the foramen ovale in the fetal heart.

C) The portal system is the same as parallel flow.

D) Blood flows in one direction throughout the circulatory system.

E) The portal system refers to ports located in the veins (which does not allow for the backflow of blood).

A

9) What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

A) heart

B) diaphragm

C) intestines

D) liver

E) lungs

B

10) Which chamber of the heart has the thickest musculature?

A) right atrium

B) right ventricle

C) left atrium

D) left ventricle

E) Both ventricles have equal thickness and are thicker than the atria.

E

11) The opening and closure of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves is driven by

A) contraction of the valve.

B) contraction of muscles attached to the valves.

C) contraction of the ventricle and atria that pull the valves into place.

D) differences in pressure across the valve.

E) contraction and relaxation of the valve.

D

12) Closure of the atrioventricular valve occurs when

A) the valve contracts.

B) pressure inside the ventricle is less than pressure inside the atrium.

C) pressure inside the ventricle is greater than pressure inside the atrium.

D) the papillary muscle contracts.

E) the atrium contracts.

C

13) Which of the following statements best describes the function of the chordae tendineae?

A) They pull downward on the valve cusps, thereby preventing the AV valves from being pushed into the atria (prolapsing).

B) They open and close the AV valve due to the movement of the papillary muscle during contraction.

C) When the heart contracts, the chordate tendineae separate the flow of blood from the right and left sides of the heart.

D) The chordae tendineae generate autorhythmicity within the heart.

E) The chordae tendineae act like a parachute and capture blood as it enters the right ventricle.

A

14) What is the primary function of the AV and semilunar valves?

A) to permit blood to flow forward while preventing it from flowing backward

B) to keep the right and left sides of the heart separated

C) to control the speed at which blood enter and leaves the heart

D) to coordinate the autorhythmic movements of the heart

E) The opening and closing of the valves creates the normal patterns of an EKG.

A

15) Whereas the contractile activity of skeletal muscle is called ________, that of cardiac muscle is ________ because the contraction originates within the musculature itself.

A) somatic : autonomic

B) voluntary : involuntary

C) neurogenic : myogenic

D) somatic : autorhythmic

E) extrinsic : intrinsic

C

16) What two major regions of the heart contain a concentration of pacemaker cells?

A) sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node

B) sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers

C) sinoatrial node and bundle of His

D) bundle of His and atrioventricular node

E) bundle of His and Purkinje fibers

A

17) The term autorhythmicity refers to the heart's ability to

A) conduct action potentials along the conduction pathway.

B) generate its own contractile cycle.

C) originate its contraction neurogenically.

D) act as a functional syncytium.

E) intrinsically modify its contractility.

B

18) What structure provides the pathway for the movement of electrical current between the cells of the conduction pathway and the ventricular muscle fibers?

A) desmosomes

B) sodium channels

C) gap junctions

D) potassium channels

E) funny channels

C

19) Which of the following is the correct conduction pathway through the heart?

A) Purkinje fibers, bundle of His, bundle branches, SA node, AV node

B) SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers

C) AV node, SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

D) Bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers, SA node, AV node

E) SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches

B

20) Conduction through which of the following is slow to allow atria to contract before the ventricles?

A) atria

B) SA node

C) AV node

D) AV bundle (bundle of His)

E) Purkinje fibers

C

21) Why do AV nodal cells NOT determine the heart rate under normal circumstances?

A) They depolarize faster than all other conducting fibers.

B) They depolarize slower than all other conducting fibers.

C) They slow conduction of the wave of excitation.

D) As depolarization initiated in the SA node reaches the AV node, it leaves the AV node in a refractory state.

E) The AV node is connected to the SA node, but not to other conducting fibers in the heart.

D

22) Normal resting heart rate is around 70 beats per minute due to the SA node. If the SA node fails, what would you expect the heart beats per minute to be?

A) 50 beats per minute

B) 70 beats per minute as the AV node takes over for the SA node

C) 30-40 beats per minute

D) 10-20 beats per minute

E) If the SA node fails the individual will go into heart failure and therefore there will be no heart rate.

A

23) If both the SA node and the AV node fail, what would be the expected outcome of impulse rate within the heart?

A) The rate would be 30-40 beats per minute due to the concentration of pacemaker cells in the Purkinje fibers.

B) The individual would be in heart failure or have a myocardial infarction due to the lack of a beating heart.

C) The heart is autorhythmic therefore it continually beats even after death because death is defined as a lack of brain waves.

D) The vagus nerve takes over and maintains a normal heart rate.

E) The sympathetic nervous system takes over and maintains normal heart rate.

A

24) The rapid depolarization phase of a pacemaker cell action potential is caused by movement of

A) sodium through funny channels.

B) calcium through L-type channels.

C) potassium through funny channels.

D) calcium through T-type channels.

E) sodium and calcium through funny channels.

B

25) Which of the following is responsible for the rapid depolarization phase of an action potential within the pacemaker cells?

A) a decrease in PNa

B) an increase in PNa

C) a decrease in PK

D) an increase in PK

E) an increase in PCa

E

26) Which of the following is responsible for the repolarization of pacemaker cells?

A) an increase in PCa

B) an increase in PNa

C) a decrease in PK

D) an increase in PK

E) a decrease in PNa

D

27) What causes the rapid depolarization phase of a contractile cell action potential?

A) sodium movement into the cell

B) sodium movement out of the cell

C) calcium movement into the cell

D) calcium movement out of the cell

E) potassium movement into the cell

A

28) During repolarization (phase 3) of a contractile cell action potential,

A) only sodium permeability is increased.

B) only calcium permeability is increased.

C) only potassium permeability is increased.

D) sodium and calcium permeability are both increased.

E) sodium and potassium permeability are both increased.

C

29) Which of the following ion channels does NOT participate in the contractile cell action potential?

A) type T calcium channels

B) type L calcium channels

C) delayed rectifying potassium channels

D) inward rectifying potassium channels

E) voltage-gated sodium channels

A

30) Which of the following is NOT a part of the excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle?

A) An action potential travels along transverse tubules.

B) Calcium channels in the plasma membrane open, allowing calcium ions to enter the cell.

C) Calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum open, allowing calcium ions to enter the cytosol.

D) Calcium binds to calmodulin in the cytosol.

E) Calcium opens calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

D

31) What is the function of the sodium-calcium exchanger in cardiac muscle?

A) depolarize the cell

B) trigger the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

C) remove calcium from the cytosol by transporting it to the extracellular fluid thereby relaxing the muscle

D) remove calcium from the cytosol by transporting it into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

E) interact with troponin to initiate cross-bridge cycling

C

32) Which of the following components of an ECG represents atrial depolarization?

A) P wave

B) QRS complex

C) T wave

D) PQ interval

E) TQ segment

A

33) Which of the following components of an ECG represents ventricular depolarization?

A) P wave

B) QRS complex

C) T wave

D) PQ interval

E) TQ segment

B

34) Which of the following components of an ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

A) P wave

B) QRS complex

C) T wave

D) PQ interval

E) TQ segment

C

35) Which statement best describes why atrial depolarization is usually not detected on a normal ECG?

A) It occurs at the same time as the QRS complex.

B) The electrodes cannot be placed high enough on the chest to detect the atria.

C) The atria are so small and the depolarization happens so quickly that it cannot be detected.

D) The atria do not contract only the AV valves open.

E) The voltage change in the atria is minimal and therefore does not register on an ECG.

A

36) The Q-T interval is the time from the onset of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave which measures

A) the time of ventricular systole.

B) the time of ventricular diastole.

C) the time of atrial systole.

D) the time of atrial diastole.

E) the amount of time between each heartbeat.

A

37) The T-Q segment is the time from the end of the T wave to the beginning of the QRS complex which measures the time

A) of ventricular systole.

B) of ventricular diastole.

C) of atrial systole.

D) of atrial diastole.

E) between heartbeats.

B

38) The R-R interval is the time between the peaks of two successive QRS complexes and represents

A) ventricular systole.

B) ventricular diastole.

C) atrial systole.

D) atrial diastole.

E) the amount of time between heartbeats.

E

39) If damage to the AV node slowed down conduction through this tissue, what would be observed on an ECG?

A) a larger P wave

B) a longer P wave

C) a longer PR interval

D) a wider QRS complex

E) an inverted T wave

C

40) In an ECG recording, the RR interval is 0.5 seconds. What is the heart rate? (HR = 60/RR interval in seconds)

A) 50 beats/min

B) 100 beats/min

C) 30 beats/min

D) 60 beats/min

E) 120 beats/min

E

41) Which of the following describes second-degree heart block?

A) There is a longer delay between atrial contraction and ventricular contraction.

B) Not every atrial contraction is followed by a ventricular contraction.

C) Not every ventricular contraction is preceded by an atrial contraction.

D) The ventricles no longer contract.

E) The atria no longer contract.

B

42) Which statement best describes why clinicians use a defibrillator?

A) The applied current depolarizes all the muscle cells at the same time, returning synchronous electrical activity to the heart.

B) The ventricles of the heart are so large that only a strong current can make them depolarize, which is needed in order for them to contract and get blood to the body.

C) A defibrillator takes the place of the SA node and must be applied every minute to keep the heart rate normal until it regains its strength and beats on its own.

D) The applied current repolarizes the cells of the heart, hence resetting the heart for normal rhythm.

E) The applied current opens up voltage gated calcium channels in the atria causing the heart to begin a new P wave.

A

43) During isovolumetric relaxation,

A) the AV and semilunar valves are closed and ventricular pressure is increasing.

B) the AV and semilunar valves are closed and ventricular pressure is decreasing.

C) the AV and semilunar valves are open and ventricular pressure is increasing.

D) the AV and semilunar valves are open and ventricular pressure is decreasing.

E) the AV valves are open, the semilunar valves are closed, and ventricular pressure is decreasing.

B

44) What is occurring during ventricular ejection?

A) The AV and semilunar valves are closed as ventricular pressure is increasing.

B) The AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as ventricular pressure is. increasing

C) The AV and semilunar valves are open as blood is leaving the ventricles.

D) The AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are open as blood is leaving the ventricles.

E) The AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as blood is leaving the ventricles.

D

45) Which of the following is TRUE of the ventricular filling phase of the cardiac cycle?

A) Ventricular filling occurs during systole.

B) All valves in the heart are open.

C) Ventricular pressure is less than aortic pressure.

D) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure.

E) Ventricular pressure is decreasing.

C

46) What phase of the cardiac cycle is the heart in when all four valves of the heart are closed and ventricular pressure is building, but is not yet great enough to open a valve?

A) ventricular filling

B) isovolumetric contraction

C) ventricular ejection

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) none

B

47) During which phase of the cardiac cycle are all four heart valves open?

A) ventricular filling

B) isovolumetric contraction

C) ventricular ejection

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) none

E

48) Ejection of blood from the right ventricle will continue until

A) the pulmonary semilunar valve contracts, inducing closure.

B) pressure in the pulmonary artery is less than pressure in the right ventricle.

C) pressure in the aorta is greater than pressure in the right ventricle.

D) pressure in the pulmonary artery is greater than pressure in the right ventricle.

E) pressure in the aorta is less than pressure in the right ventricle.

D

49) The increase in ventricular volume early in diastole reflects the

A) increased stiffness of the heart.

B) contraction of the atria moving blood into the ventricle.

C) passive movement of blood through the atrium and into the ventricle.

D) relaxation of the ventricle.

E) back-flow of blood from the aorta.

C

50) The small increase in ventricular pressure observed late in diastole is caused by

A) ventricular contraction.

B) ventricular relaxation.

C) atrial contraction.

D) atrial relaxation.

E) blood moving into the atria from vena cava.

C

51) Blood is ejected from the left ventricle once pressure within the

A) ventricle is greater than pressure within the aorta.

B) ventricle is less than pressure within the aorta.

C) ventricle is greater than pressure within the pulmonary artery.

D) ventricle is less than pressure within the pulmonary artery.

E) muscles of the pulmonary semilunar valve relax.

A

52) The increased aortic pressure that occurs during systole reflects a(n)

A) decreased resistance of the vasculature.

B) decreased volume of blood within the aorta.

C) increased resistance of the vasculature.

D) increased volume of blood in the aorta.

E) decreased stiffness of the aorta.

D

53) The end-diastolic volume minus the end-systolic volume is the

A) ejection fraction.

B) stroke volume.

C) cardiac output.

D) total ventricular volume.

E) total atrial volume.

B

54) The volume of blood ejected from the ventricle with each contraction can be described by the equation

A) (end-diastolic volume) - (end-systolic volume).

B) (ejection fraction) ? (end-diastolic volume).

C) (stroke volume) - (end-diastolic volume).

D) (end-systolic volume) - (stroke volume).

E) (pulse pressure) - (end-diastolic volume).

A

55) Given end-diastolic volume = 130 mL and end-systolic volume = 50 mL, what is the stroke volume and ejection fraction?

A) SV = 80 mL, EF = 0.61

B) SV = 180 mL, EF = 0.61

C) SV = 50 mL, EF = 0.61

D) SV = 180 mL, EF = 0.38

E) SV = 80 mL, EF = 0.38

A

56) What causes the sounds that one hears as the heart beats?

A) the snapping of the valves into a closed position

B) the turbulence created as the valves close

C) the snapping of the valves into the open position

D) the turbulence created as the valves open

E) the bulk movement of blood into and out of the ventricle

B

57) Cardiac output is determined by what two variables?

A) heart rate and stroke volume

B) end-diastolic volume and end-systolic volume

C) stroke volume and ejection fraction

D) heart rate and ejection fraction

E) preload and afterload

A

58) Regulation of the heart (or any organ or tissue) by neural input, circulating hormones, or any other factor originating from outside the organ is referred to as ________ control.

A) intrinsic

B) extrinsic

C) neurogenic

D) myogenic

E) voluntary

B

59) Which of the following structures is poorly innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system and, therefore, an increase in parasympathetic activity has little effect on this structure?

A) sinoatrial node

B) atrioventricular node

C) ventricles

D) conduction pathway

E) Purkinje fibers

C

60) The SA node is innervated by the

A) sympathetic nervous system only.

B) parasympathetic nervous system only.

C) somatic nervous system only.

D) sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.

E) sympathetic, parasympathetic, and somatic nervous systems.

D

61) Which of the following is an effect of parasympathetic activity to the heart?

A) Postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine, which binds to nicotinic cholinergic receptors in the SA node.

B) SA nodal cells are depolarized.

C) Heart rate is increased.

D) The rate of spontaneous depolarization in SA nodal cells decreases.

E) cAMP is activated.

D

62) Which of the following is a FALSE statement about sympathetic activity to the SA node?

A) Norepinephrine binds to beta1 adrenergic receptors.

B) cAMP levels in the pacemaker cells increases.

C) Funny channel opening is enhanced.

D) The rate of spontaneous depolarization is increased.

E) Potassium channel closing is enhanced.

E

63) Under resting conditions, heart rate is primarily under the control of what control system?

A) the parasympathetic nervous system

B) the sympathetic nervous system

C) epinephrine

D) the somatic nervous system

E) intrinsic mechanisms

A

64) An increase in heart rate can be mediated through which of the following?

A) a decrease in parasympathetic nervous activity only

B) a decrease in sympathetic activity only

C) an increase in sympathetic activity only

D) an increase in parasympathetic activity and a decrease in sympathetic activity

E) a decrease in parasympathetic activity and an increase in sympathetic activity

E

65) Which of the following would NOT result from an increase in ventricular contractility?

A) increased stroke volume

B) increased ejection fraction

C) decreased end-systolic volume

D) increased proportion of end-diastolic volume that is ejected

E) decreased end-diastolic volume

E

66) Which of the following best describes the effect of sympathetic activity on ventricular contractile cells?

A) The rates of contraction and relaxation both increase, whereas the force of contraction decreases.

B) The rate of contraction and the force of contraction both increase, whereas the rate of relaxation decreases.

C) The rates of contraction and relaxation and the force of contraction all increase.

D) The rates of contraction and relaxation both decrease, whereas the force of contraction increases.

E) The force of contraction increases, whereas the rates of contraction and relaxation are not affected.

C

67) Which of the following describes the effect of end-diastolic volume on stroke volume?

A) An increase in end-diastolic volume stretches ventricular muscle cells to lengths greater than optimum, decreasing the strength of contraction and thereby decreasing stroke volume.

B) An increase in end-diastolic volume stretches ventricular muscle cells to lengths closer to optimum, increasing the strength of contraction and thereby increasing stroke volume.

C) A decrease in end-diastolic volume allows ventricular muscle cells to relax more during diastole, allowing more blood to return to the heart increasing stroke volume.

D) A decrease in end-diastolic volume creates a vacuum drawing more blood into the ventricle increasing stroke volume.

E) A decrease in end-diastolic volume allows cardiac muscle to relax, conserving energy for the next contraction, thereby increasing stroke volume of that next contraction.

B

68) Which of the following variables is NOT an intrinsic factor that alters cardiac function?

A) preload

B) atrial pressure

C) end-systolic volume

D) hormonal stimulation

E) Starling's law

D

69) Starling curves plot ________ against ________.

A) stroke volume : end-diastolic volume

B) stroke volume : end-systolic volume

C) heart rate : end-diastolic volume

D) heart rate : end-systolic volume

E) cardiac output : end-diastolic volume

A

70) The preload is approximately the same as the ________ pressure.

A) end-diastolic

B) end-systolic

C) aortic systolic

D) aortic diastolic

E) atrial

A

71) Which of the following factors determines preload?

A) heart rate and venous return

B) the pressure in the aorta and the lungs

C) end-diastolic volume and end-systolic volume

D) parasympathetic activity of the ventricles

E) peripheral resistance and tension

A

72) An increase in venous return would result in a(n)

A) increased end-systolic volume.

B) decreased end-systolic volume.

C) decreased end-diastolic volume.

D) increased end-diastolic volume.

E) increase mid-systolic volume.

D

73) Which of the following variables is NOT involved in determining ventricular preload?

A) filling time

B) atrial pressure

C) venous return

D) afterload

E) central venous pressure

D

74) A decrease in afterload will lead to which of the following?

A) increased heart rate

B) decreased heart rate

C) increased stroke volume

D) decreased stroke volume

E) decreased cardiac output

C

75) Which of the following decreases heart rate?

A) increase in venous pressure

B) increase in filling time

C) increase in sympathetic activity

D) increase in parasympathetic activity

E) increase in stroke volume

D

76) Which heart structure receives deoxygenated blood from veins?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

A

77) Which heart structure receives blood from the pulmonary veins?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

C

78) Where is the SA node located?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

A

79) The mitral valve separates what chamber from its associated ventricle?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

C

80) What chamber empties into the aorta?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

B

81) What chamber has the thickest myocardium?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

B

82) During isovolumetric contraction, which chamber has the greatest pressure?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

B

83) Which chamber is connected to the pulmonary arteries?

A) right atrium

B) left ventricle

C) left atrium

D) right ventricle

E) AV bundle (bundle of His)

D

84) Which channel type allows sodium movement into the cell during the early spontaneous depolarization in autorhythmic cells?

A) potassium channels

B) T-type calcium channels

C) funny channels

D) L-type calcium channels

E) voltage-gated sodium channels

C

85) Which channel type allows calcium movement into the cell during the late spontaneous depolarization in autorhythmic cells?

A) potassium channels

B) T-type calcium channels

C) funny channels

D) L-type calcium channels

E) voltage-gated sodium channels

B

86) Which channel type allows ion movement out of the cell during repolarization of the autorhythmic cells?

A) potassium channels

B) T-type calcium channels

C) funny channels

D) L-type calcium channels

E) voltage-gated sodium channels

A

87) Which channel type is responsible for ion movement during the depolarization phase of the autorhythmic cell action potential?

A) potassium channels

B) T-type calcium channels

C) funny channels

D) L-type calcium channels

E) voltage-gated sodium channels

D

88) What channels open during the plateau phase of the cardiac contractile cell action potential?

A) potassium channels

B) T-type calcium channels

C) funny channels

D) L-type calcium channels

E) voltage-gated sodium channels

D

89) Opening of what channels is responsible for the depolarization phase of the cardiac contractile cell action potential?

A) potassium channels

B) T-type calcium channels

C) funny channels

D) L-type calcium channels

E) voltage-gated sodium channels

E

90) Which component of an ECG represents ventricular depolarization?

A) P wave

B) P-R interval

C) T wave

D) Q-T interval

E) QRS complex

E

91) Which component of an ECG represents atrial depolarization?

A) P wave

B) P-R interval

C) T wave

D) Q-T interval

E) QRS complex

A

92) Which component of an ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

A) P wave

B) P-R interval

C) T wave

D) Q-T interval

E) QRS complex

C

93) Which component of an ECG represents ventricular systole?

A) P wave

B) P-R interval

C) T wave

D) Q-T interval

E) QRS complex

D

94) Which component of an ECG represents ventricular diastole?

A) P-R interval

B) T wave

C) Q-T interval

D) QRS complex

E) T-Q segment

E

95) Which component of an ECG represents the AV nodal conduction time?

A) P-R interval

B) T wave

C) Q-T interval

D) QRS complex

E) T-Q segment

A

96) In what phase is the cardiac cycle when all four valves are closed and pressure in the ventricle is decreasing?

A) atrial contraction

B) ventricular filling

C) isovolumetric contraction

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) ventricular ejection

D

97) In what phase of the cardiac cycle does ventricular pressure exceed aortic pressure?

A) atrial contraction

B) ventricular filling

C) isovolumetric contraction

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) ventricular ejection

E

98) In what phase is the cardiac cycle when the AV valves are open and semilunar valves are closed?

A) atrial contraction

B) ventricular filling

C) isovolumetric contraction

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) ventricular ejection

B

99) In what phase is the cardiac cycle when the semilunar valves are open and AV valves are closed?

A) atrial contraction

B) ventricular filling

C) isovolumetric contraction

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) ventricular ejection

E

100) The second heart sound coincides with the beginning of which period in the cardiac cycle?

A) atrial contraction

B) ventricular filling

C) isovolumetric contraction

D) isovolumetric relaxation

E) ventricular ejection

D