EMT Midterm Review

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office to:

A. use an automatic transport ventilator.

B. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

C. apply and interpret data from a pulse oximeter.

D. insert a peripheral intravenous catheter.

D

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:

A. insert a peripheral IV line and infuse fluids.

B. interpret a basic (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

C. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications.

D. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

C

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a:

A. advanced EMT (AEMT).

B. EMR.

C. EMT.

D. paramedic.

D

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacologic interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:

A. EMT.

B. EMR.

C. paramedic.

D. AEMT.

C

Continuing education in EMS serves to:

A. maintain, update, and expand the EMT's knowledge and skills.

B. enforce mandatory attendance at agency-specific training.

C. provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

D. confirm research and statistical findings in prehospital care.

A

EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:

A. the Department of Transportation's White Paper: Death and Dying.

B. Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured.

C. Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society.

D. the Emergency Medical Services Act.

C

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the:

A. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

B. National Registry of EMTs.

C. individual state's EMS protocols.

D. National Association of EMTs.

A

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:

A. State Bureau of EMS.

B. individual EMT.

C. EMS training officer.

D. EMS medical director.

B

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:

A. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

B. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.

C. administer punitive actions to EMTs who do not follow local protocols.

D. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

A

The EMT certification exam is designed to:

A. identify those EMTs who are prepared for advanced levels of training.

B. provide EMTs with the best possible wage once certification is achieved.

C. rank EMTs based on performance on the certification exam.

D. ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.

D

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:

A. medical director.

B. shift supervisor.

C. EMS administrator.

D. field training officer.

A

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:

A. state office of EMS.

B. regional trauma center.

C. American Heart Association.

D. National Registry of EMTs.

A

Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?

A. Successful completion of a recognized bystander CPR course

B. Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

C. Demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds

D. A minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care

B

Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?

A. A team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

B. A vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting

C. A system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients

D. A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

D

Which of the following is a specific example of the Mobile Integrated Healthcare (MIH) model?

A. Paramedics pick up a patient from an acute care clinic

B. The paramedic administers a patient's flu vaccination

C. EMTs assess a patient whose lung disease is “acting up”

D. EMTs respond to a woman who complains of high fever

B

Which of the following scenarios involves the administration of ALS?

A. A 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a supraglottic device

B. A 53-year-old patient who is assisted with his prescribed nitroglycerin

C. A 64-year-old patient who is given aspirin for suspected cardiac chest pain

D. A 61-year-old patient who is receiving humidified supplemental oxygen

A

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?

A. Automated external defibrillation

B. Oral glucose for hypoglycemia

C. Use of a manually triggered ventilator

D. Intranasal medication administration

A

Which of the following skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS?

A. Bleeding control using a tourniquet

B. Obtaining a manual blood pressure

C. Administration of supplemental oxygen

D. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway

A

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct?

A. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval.

B. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.

C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director.

D. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval.

B

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

A. The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

B. The NREMT is the ONLY exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

C. The NREMT regulates EMS training standards.

D. The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.

A

A 15-year-old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance to shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should:

A. let them know that because of the circumstances of their child's death, they will not be permitted to see him at this time.

B. advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.

C. discreetly escort them to the back of the ambulance and allow them to see their child by themselves while you wait outside.

D. express your sincere condolences over their loss and have them escorted away from the scene by a law enforcement officer.

B

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the inciden

A. 24

B. six

C. 12

D. 72

D

A positive TB skin test indicates that:

A. you have never been exposed to TB.

B. the TB disease is currently dormant but might later become active.

C. you are actively infected with TB.

D. you have been exposed to TB.

D

According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must:

A. screen all prospective employees for bloodborne pathogens.

B. guarantee a 100% risk-free environment prior to employment.

C. offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk of exposure.

D. provide gloves and other personal protective equipment to full-time paid employees only.

C

After assessing a patient's blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should:

A. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

B. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention.

C. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible.

D. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

D

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The patients inside the car are conscious. You should:

A. remove the lines with a nonconductive object.

B. proceed with normal extrication procedures.

C. advise the patients to carefully get out of the car.

D. mark off a danger zone around the downed lines.

D

Carbon monoxide blocks the ability of the blood to oxygenate the body because it:

A. fills the alveoli in the lungs with thick secretions.

B. binds with the hemoglobin in red blood cells.

C. causes the body to expel too much carbon dioxide.

D. destroys the number of circulating red blood cells.

B

Gloves, a mask, eye protection, and a face shield should be used:

A. while handling needles or other sharps.

B. during routine cleaning of the ambulance.

C. whenever you touch non-intact skin.

D. when performing endotracheal intubation.

D

Hazards that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:

A. risk of building collapse.

B. high ambient temperatures.

C. carbon dioxide deficiency.

D. Smoke and toxic gases.

C

If you are exposed to a patient's blood or other bodily fluid, your first action should be to:

A. vigorously clean the area with soap and water.

B. abandon patient care and seek medical attention.

C. report the incident to the infection control officer.

D. transfer care of the patient to another EMS provider.

D

Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:

A. have large, rounded lenses.

B. do not have shatterproof lenses.

C. are not secured with a strap.

D. offer little or no side protection.

D

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:

A. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

B. stares at certain parts of another person's anatomy.

C. makes rude remarks about a person's body parts.

D. touches another person without his or her consent.

A

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:

A. undergo an annual physical examination.

B. ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.

C. undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.

D. wash your hands in between patient contacts.

D

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should:

A. put on high-visibility safety vests.

B. report to the incident commander.

C. quickly begin the triage process.

D. assist with vehicle stabilization.

A

What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?

A. Contact medical control.

B. Check for other patients.

C. Ensure the vehicle is stable.

D. Request another ambulance.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?

A. It is rare that people will jump back and forth between stages of the grieving process.

B. The stages of the grieving process might occur simultaneously.

C. The grieving process typically begins with severe depression.

D. Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process.

B

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the best cover in a situation involving active gunfire?

A. Stacked empty barrels

B. Behind a car door

C. A large cluster of shrubs

D. A concrete barricade

D

You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the healthcare system caused his disease. Which stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with?

A. Depression

B. Anger

C. Bargaining

D. Denial

B

You are assessing a woman who was thrown from a horse. She is located in a large field and you can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should:

A. sit down, bend your knees, and hold your crossed arms close to your body.

B. crouch down in a position so that only your feet are touching the ground.

C. quickly cover the patient with a blanket and then lie down flat on the ground.

D. immediately lie down on your side and draw your knees into your abdomen.

B

You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should:

A. tell her that he is being resuscitated by other EMTs.

B. let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible.

C. immediately tell her of his death so that she might grieve.

D. avoid answering her questions and focus on her injuries.

B

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should:

A.

have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office.

B.

assess whether the patient's mental condition is impaired.

C.

document the patient's request but continue to transport him.

D.

request that the police place the patient under protective custody.

B

Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:

A. Assault.

B. battery.

C. negligence.

D. libel.

A

An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:

A. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report.

B. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife.

C. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient.

D. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.

C

As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:

A. another EMT.

B. the general public.

C. a paramedic supervisor.

D. the medical director.

A

For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:

A. be dated within the previous 24 months.

B. be updated a minimum of every 6 months.

C. clearly state the patient's medical problem.

D. be signed by the local justice of the peace.

C

If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:

A. it was not performed, according to the eyes of the law.

B. it can be qualified by the EMT in charge.

C. it cannot be used in establishing negligence.

D. it was performed haphazardly by the EMT.

A

In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:

A. is mentally competent and able to refuse.

B. is self-supporting and lives by him- or herself.

C. has a poor relationship with his or her parents.

D. possesses a valid driver's license.

B

In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist?

A. The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty.

B. The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends.

C. A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing.

D. A call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change.

D

Putrefaction is defined as:

A. decomposition of the body's tissues.

B. blood settling to the lowest point of the body.

C. profound cyanosis to the trunk and face.

D. separation of the torso from the rest of the body.

A

Shortly after you load your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. The patient is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct?

A. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time.

B. Once the patient is in the ambulance, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment.

C. Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form.

D. Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital.

A

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate: He develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of:

A. battery.

B. abandonment.

C. negligence.

D. assault.

C

When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should:

A. notify the coroner immediately.

B. contact medical control first.

C. determine the patient's illness.

D. begin resuscitation at once.

D

When performing his or her duties, the EMT is generally expected to:

A. function above his or her scope of practice.

B. contact medical control on every EMS call.

C. consistently exceed the standard of care.

D. exercise reasonable care and act prudently.

D

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?

A. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

B. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation

C. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation

D. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation

B

Which of the following patients has decision-making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?

A. A confused young male who says he is the president

B. A diabetic woman who has slurred speech and is not aware of the date

C. A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

D. A man who is staggering and states that he had three beers

C

Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts abandonment?

A. An EMT gives a verbal report to an emergency room nurse.

B. A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT.

C. A physician assumes patient care from an EMT.

D. An AEMT transfers patient care to a paramedic.

B

Which of the following situations requires you to notify the appropriate authorities?

A. Accidental knife wound

B. Attempted suicide

C. Cardiac arrest

D. Drug overdose

B

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, not breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:

A. ventilate the patient for five minutes and then stop if there is no response.

B. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin CPR.

C. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic crew.

D. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is deceased.

D

You are dispatched to an office building for a 49-year-old male with chest pain. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient to be conscious and alert but in obvious pain. He tells you that he did not call 911; a coworker did. He further states that he does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. You should:

A. err in the best interest of the patient and transport him at once.

B. ensure that he is aware of the risks of refusing medical care.

C. have him sign a refusal of care form and then return to service.

D. tell him that he is having a heart attack and needs medical care.

B

You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?

A. Profound cyanosis

B. Dependent lividity

C. Absent breath sounds

D. Absence of a pulse

B

A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.

A. duplex

B. scanner

C. decoder

D. repeater

D

A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:

A. reported to the police.

B. an informed refusal.

C. authorized by a judge.

D. witnessed by a notary.

B

After being dispatched on an emergency call, you should expect the dispatcher to provide you with all of the following information, except:

A. the number of patients involved in the incident.

B. the general geographic location of the incident.

C. the nature of the injury, illness, or incident.

D. other agencies that are responding to the scene.

B

After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the handwritten PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should:

A. erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum.

B. cover the error with correction fluid and then write the patient's actual blood pressure over it.

C. draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.

D. leave the error on the PCR, but inform the staff of the patient's actual blood pressure.

C

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should:

A. perform the intervention as ordered.

B. confirm the order in your own words.

C. ask the physician to repeat the order.

D. repeat the order to medical control word for word.

D

Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and a receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:

A. mobile radio.

B. base station.

C. multiplex.

D. repeater.

B

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:

A. respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician.

B. place the patient in a high-visibility area and then respond to the call.

C. leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call.

D. inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once.

A

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, except:

A. providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response.

B. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

C. shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment.

D. placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips.

B

Despite your numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that the patient has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should:

A. sign the refusal form, include the date and time, and have your partner witness it with his or her signature.

B. advise the patient that unless he signs the refusal form, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment or transport.

C. document the patient's refusal, but leave the refusal form blank because only the patient can legally sign it.

D. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign.

D

General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, except:

A. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.

B. holding the microphone about 2 to 3 inches from your mouth.

C. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice.

D. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible.

A

In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?

A. Passive

B. Authoritative

C. Calm and confident

D. Loud and official

C

Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, except:

A. a brief summary of the care you provided.

B. your perception of the severity of the problem.

C. a brief history of the patient's current problem.

D. a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's problem.

D

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT:

A. informs dispatch of the patient's arrival at the emergency department.

B. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility.

C. notifies the admitting clerk of the patient's arrival at the hospital.

D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse

D

When communicating information over the radio, you should:

A. limit any single transmission to 60 seconds or less and use 10 codes.

B. use the words “affirmative” and “negative” instead of “yes” or “no.”

C. use the patient's name only when communicating with the hospital.

D. respond professionally by saying “please” and “thank you.”

B

When obtaining patient care orders from a physician via a two-way radio, it is important to remember that:

A. the physician's instructions are based on the information you provide.

B. the physician might or might not be located within your service area.

C. the use of 10 codes is an effective method of communication.

D. all orders should be carried out immediately and without question.

A

Which of the following has the weakest transmission signal and, as a result, is least likely to be heard by the party being called?

A. Land-base repeater station

B. Multiplex base station

C. Handheld portable radio

D. Mobile repeater station

C

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct?

A. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented.

B. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.

C. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment.

D. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.

B

You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should:

A. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States.

B. advise the emergency department physician that you believe the child was intentionally abused by his parents.

C. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power.

D. document this finding on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you.

D

You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.

A. negligence

B. slander

C. assault

D. libel

B

YourYour EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should:

A. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission.

B. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented.

C. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed.

D. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff.

B

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ____________ forearm.

A. dorsal

B. distal

C. proximal

D. superior

B

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a:

A. distal humerus fracture.

B. proximal elbow fracture.

C. distal forearm fracture.

D. proximal humerus fracture.

A

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:

A. proximal.

B. medial.

C. bilateral.

D. unilateral.

C

A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:

A. only one side of his chest rises when he inhales.

B. his chest and his abdomen are moving in opposite directions.

C. both of his lungs are expanding when he inhales.

D. both sides of his chest are moving minimally.

A

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called:

A. hemolysis.

B. hemostasis.

C. hematemesis.

D. hemiplegia.

B

In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:

A. medial.

B. lateral.

C. proximal.

D. distal.

C

Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called:

A. extension.

B. adduction.

C. abduction.

D. flexion.

C

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:

A. lateral.

B. medial.

C. midaxillary.

D. midclavicular.

B

The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is:

A. dorsal.

B. superior.

C. internal.

D. inferior.

D

Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word “dorsal”?

A. Palmar

B. Posterior

C. Medial

D. Anterior

B

A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that:

A. She has excessive vomiting.

B. she has frequent urination.

C. her respiratory rate is rapid.

D. her unborn baby is very large.

A

The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles.

A. apex

B. septum

C. base

D. dorsum

A

The term “pericardiocentesis” means:

A. a surgical opening made in the heart.

B. the removal of fluid from around the heart.

C. surgical repair of the sac around the heart.

D. narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart.

B

The term “supraventricular tachycardia” means:

A. a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

B. a rapid heart rate that originates from within the ventricles.

C. a slow heart rate that originates from within the ventricles.

D. a slow heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.

A

___________ pressure is the pressure exerted by a liquid that occurs when blood moves through an artery at relatively high pressures.

A. Osmotic

B. Diffusion

C. Hydrostatic

D. Oncotic

C

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:

A. lactic acid.

B. nitrogen.

C. heat.

D. oxygen.

C

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The “130” in this measurement represents:

A. ventricular relaxation.

B. atrial contraction.

C. ventricular contraction.

D. ventricular filling.

C

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which of the following types of shock would this condition cause?

A. Hypovolemic

B. Obstructive

C. Neurogenic

D. Cardiogenic

B

Activities such as walking, talking, and writing are regulated by the:

A. involuntary nervous system.

B. autonomic nervous system.

C. central nervous system.

D. somatic nervous system.

D

Anterior to the knee is a specialized bone called the:

A. patella.

B. tibia.

C. calcaneus.

D. femur.

A