anormal ob final important

What does HELLP stand for

• Hemolysis

• Elevated Liver Enzymes 

• Low Platelets

What is the acronym for harmful infections

TORCH

what does TORCH stand for

• toxoplasmosis 

• others 

• rubella 

• cytomegalovirus 

• herpes simplex

when does toxoplasmosis have less frequent transmission to fetus, but the consequences are more severe

1st trimester

Why is situs inversus considered a possible fetal risk in pregnancies complicated by maternal diabetes mellitus 

it increases risk of congenital anomalies, including abnormal organ development such as situs inversus 

Mothers with diabetes mellitus are more commonly known to have children with macrosomia, what is a fetal risk associated with this

• perinatal morbidity from birth 

• trauma due to macrosomia 

is AF increased or decreased with IUGR

increased

is AF increased or decreased with gestational diabetes

increased

is AF increased or decreased with renal agenesis

decreased

is AF increased or decreased with ARPKD

decreased

what is the upper limit of edema

3

what are most causes of IUGR caused by

placental insufficiency

what type of IUGR is when all measurements are reduced

symmetric

what type of IUGR only has a weight reduction with a normal size HC and body length

Asymmetric

Symmetric IUGR is characterized by early or late onset

early

• beginning of 2nd trimester

symmetrical IUGR is typically associated with fetuses with what

chromosome anomalies or infection

Asymmetric IUGR is characterized by early or late onset

late

• (end of 2nd / beginning of 3rd trimester)

assymetric IUGR results from any cause of what

placental insufficiency

Doppler studies of fetal umbilical, renal, and cerebral arteries with AsymmetricIUGR results from _____ blood flow to fetal brain

preferential

SGA is a term used to describe what

a baby who is smaller than the usual amount for the gestational age

SGA babies have birth weights _____

below 10th percentile

what is a malignant lesion that is extremely rare and composed of epithelial tissue

Wilms tumour

MCDK is the most common form of cystic disease in childhood, what is it associated with

• atretic ureter and pelvo infundibular atresia 

describe what the main distinguishing feature of the pattern of the renal cysts with MCDK

cysts are non-communicating and of variable size

what is a DD of MCDK

severe hydronephrosis

what does hydronephrosis look like on US

renal cysts are similar in size and are communicating with each other

T or F: MCDK is bilateral in 19-24% of cases

true

children born with ARPKD often develop what before they reach adulthood

kidney failure

what is the most common fetal urinary tract abnormality detected with prenatal ultrasound

hydronephrosis

which type of obstruction is the most common cause of neonatal hydronephrosis

UPJ obstruction

the term “flipper like appendages” is associated with what

achondrogenesis

What is the most common cause of urinary obstruction at the urethral level

Posterior urethral valves (PUV)

is PUV more common in male or female

male

what is the specific sono finding associated with PUV

keyhole sign

what is the most common way to evaluate and classify hydronephrosis in a fetus

measurement of the anteroposterior renal pelvic diameter 

(RPD)

a cervical length of ___mm indicates a shortened cervix

< 25mm

t or f: a shortened cervix can be an indication of preterm delivery

true

a patient who complains of pelvic pain and pain with defecation appears to have an anteriorly-deviated cervix. What condition may she be suffering from

uterine entrapment syndrome

most of the time uterine entrapment syndrome has a spontaneous correction between the ___   and___ weeks

9th and 12th 

• (1st trimester)

the scalp thickness upper limit is

3mm

if you are seeing the tibia, fibia and you see the foot what does this indicate

club foot

75-80% of postpartum hemorrhages are due to what

uterine atony

what is ventriculomegaly

just see enlarged ventricles

what is hydrocephaly

enlarged ventricles that causes increased pressure in the brain

what is the most common lethal skeletal dysplasia

thanatophoric dysplasia

what is the 2nd most common lethal skeletal dysplasia

achondrogenesis

how can you differentiate achondrogenesis from other skeletal dysplasias

it has the most severe degree of limb shortening

there are two types of achondrogenesis, how can you tell the difference

Type 1- multiple rib fractures

Type 2- without rib fractures

what is the most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia

achondrogenesis

achondroplasia is seen with what anomaly

trident hand

osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital bone disorder, what is it characterized by

brittle bones that are prone to fracture

what trisomy is club foot commonly associated with

trisomy 18

which type of thanatophoric dysplasia is distinguished by curved femurs and a flattened spinal column

type 1

what fetal musculoskeletal condition is though to result fro failure of normal vascular supply from the lower aorta

sirenomelia

can club foot correct iself

no

what is the most common association with turners syndrome

cystic hygroma

what is the most common cardiac anomaly associated with turners syndrome

coarctation of aorta

sandal gap toes is an uncommon finding associated with trisomy __

21

with trisomy 21, 1/3 of cases you will find ____ atresia associated

duodenal

what trisomy is an increased nuchal thickness assocaited with

trisomy 21

the majority of fetuses with trisomy 18 have _____ anomalies

cardiac

what is the purpose for AFP tests

to test for defects

an increase in AFP is associated with

spina bifida

what will you see an increase in with omphalocele and gastroschisis

AFP

Which of the following best describes a protruding abdominal cavity that is not covered by a membrane, is more on the right side of the abdomen, and the umbilical cord is not affected

Gastroschisis

what produces AFP

liver and yolk sac

Which of the following best describes the protruding abdominal cavity that is covered with a membrane and the umbilical cord inserts on top of the sac

omphalocele

prevention of immune hydrops consists of what

300mg of RhoGAM is given to mother at 28 weeks to prevent alloimmunization

can the fetus still get hydrops if given RhoGAN

no

how do you diagnose hydrops fatalis

when fluid is seen in at least two or more fetal compartments

trisomy __ is the most common chromosome abnormality associated with the foot abnormality called Rocker Bottom

18

50% of trisomy 21 have congenital heart defects with the most common abnormality being

arterioventricular canal defect (endocardial cushion defect)

what are the 4 defects of tetralogy of fallot

VSD, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, large right ventricle

transposition of the great vessels is a congenital heart defect where the ____ and_______ artery are switched

aorta and pulmonary

Ebstein's syndrome is a congenital heart defect where the _______valve is abnormally low in the right ventricle, causing it to leak and making the right atrium enlarged

tricuspid

which malformation is associated with partial or complete absence of the vermis

dandy walker malformation

what malformation is associated with hydrocephalus and myelomeningocele (spinal defect)

arnold chiari type II

which condition is characterized by the development of seizures in a patient with preeclampsia

eclampsia

Which condition is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy?

preeclampsia

what is considered high BP

140/90

with severe hypertension, will the placenta be big or small

small

how many weeks is considered pre-term

before 37 weeks

what is the most common risk with aminocentesis

chorioamnioitis

what is the first interventional procedure that can be performed

CVS (chorionic villus sampling)

when would you use a transabdominal approach for CVS

when placenta is located on anterior or fundal wall

when would you use a transcervical approach for CVS

when placenta is located on posterior or the patient has a low-lying placenta

if a CVS is done before 10 weeks it will cause

limb abnormalities

Which condition is characterized by the presence of both ovarian and testicular tissue or genitalia that are not clearly male or female?

hermaphroditism

what is another word for hermaphroditism

ambiguous genitalia

when does a fetus start producing urine

11 weeks

t or f: fainting is classified as eclampsia

true

polyhydraminos is associated with _____ atresia

esophageal

which trisomy do you see double bubble sign

trisomy 21

If the mother is experiencing hypotensive symptoms, what do you do?

turn mother on left side

will the ratio increase or decrease for femur to AC with IUGR

increase

Which chromosomal abnormality occurs when a fetus has three complete sets of chromosomes (69 total) instead of the normal 46?

triploidy