Chapter 10 - General Biology 105

The first level of compaction involves short stretches of DNA wrapped around a core of how many histone proteins?

Option A: two

Option B: four

Option C: six

Option D: eight

Option D: eight

What do genes code for?

Option A: histones

Option B: specific proteins

Option C: chromosomes

Option D: genomes

Option B: specific proteins

If an individual has a particular gene sequence, what is that expression called?

Option A: chromosome

Option B: gene

Option C: trait

Option D: histone

Option C: trait

Which of the following is not a component of a eukaryotic genome?

Option A: histones

Option B: chromatin

Option C: linear DNA

Option D: nucleoid

Option D: nucleoid

Which of the following does NOT describe prophase?

Option A: chromosomes condense and become visible

Option B: kinetochores appear at centromeres

Option C: spindle fibers emerge from the centrosomes

Option D: nucleolus disappears

Option B: kinetochores appear at centromeres

What is an important characteristic of cells that remain in G0?

Option A: The cells rarely divide, such as mature cardiac cells.

Option B: The cells frequently divide, such as epithelial cells.

Option C: Many copies of a cell type are needed, so division happens continuously.

Option D: Only one copy of the genes inside the cell is needed for the organism, so division is infrequent.

Option A: The cells rarely divide, such as mature cardiac cells.

From which of the following is the cell plate composed?

Option A: Golgi vesicles

Option B: microtubles

Option C: kinetochores

Option D: DNA

Option A: Golgi vesicles

Which of the following occurs during the G2 phase?

Option A: cell growth

Option B: DNA synthesis

Option C: cell division

Option D: chromosome condensation

Option A: cell growth

Which of the following characteristics are exhibited by positive regulatory growth factors?

Option A: They are necessary for cell survival.

Option B: They are always expressed by healthy cells.

Option C: They decrease the rate of cell proliferation.

Option D: They increase the rate of cell proliferation.

Option D: They increase the rate of cell proliferation.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that enables progression beyond the G1 checkpoint?

Option A: Growth signals

Option B: Integrity of cellular DNA

Option C: Damaging DNA

Option D: Availability of nutrients

Option C: Damaging DNA

Where is the first checkpoint in the cell cycle?

Option A: within the G1 phase of interphase

Option B: at the beginning of M phase of interphase

Option C: within the G2 phase of interphase

Option D: at the start of the S phase of interphase

Option A: within the G1 phase of interphase

What happens if a cell successfully completes the G1 phase?

Option A: It stops growing.

Option B: It moves directly to the M phase.

Option C: It irreversibly commits to the cell cycle.

Option D: It will enter a resting stage.

Option C: It irreversibly commits to the cell cycle.

What is an oncogene?

Option A: An altered sequence of DNA that codes for proteins decreasing the rate of cell cycle progression.

Option B: An altered sequence of DNA that codes for proteins increasing the rate of cell cycle progression.

Option C: Any unaltered sequence of DNA that codes for proteins influencing the cell cycle.

Option D: Any altered sequence of DNA that codes for proteins influencing the cell cycle.

Option B: An altered sequence of DNA that codes for proteins increasing the rate of cell cycle progression.

If a cell loses a fully functional p53, what is a likely consequence?

Option A: The cell proceeds from G1 to S regardless of conditions.

Option B: The cell proceeds from S to G2 regardless of conditions.

Option C: The cell proceeds from G0 to M regardless of conditions.

Option D: The cell proceeds from M to G1 regardless of conditions.

Option A: The cell proceeds from G1 to S regardless of conditions.

What are tumor suppressor genes?

Option A: segments of DNA that code for positive regulator proteins

Option B: proteins segments of DNA that code for kinases

Option C: segments of DNA that code for negative regulator proteins

Option C: segments of DNA that code for negative regulator proteins

Cancer occurs when which of the following occurs?

Option A: Cell cycle regulation is lost, resulting in uncontrolled cellular division.

Option B: Cell cycle regulation is lost, resulting in an inability of cells to divide.

Option C: Apoptosis is stimulated.

Option D: Uncontrolled cellular division and apoptosis occur.

Option A: Cell cycle regulation is lost, resulting in uncontrolled cellular division.

What is the best descriptor of tubulin?

Option A: a replication protein found in eukaryotic cells

Option B: a replication protein found in prokaryotic cells

Option C: a protein responsible for separating daughter cells

Option D: a protein responsible for uniting daughter cells

Option A: a replication protein found in eukaryotic cells

Which of the following best describes FtsZ proteins?

Option A: they're found only in eukaryotic cells

Option B: they unite daughter cells

Option C: they're responsible for separating daughter cells

Option D: they're found in prokaryotic cells

Option D: they're found in prokaryotic cells

For prokaryotic organisms, reproduction is accomplished through which process?

Option A: binary fission

Option B: sexual reproduction

Option C: mitosis

Option D: meiosis

Option A: binary fission

Which of the following describes the DNA of a prokaryote?

Option A: a singular, linear, DNA chromosome

Option B: a singular, circular DNA chromosome

Option C: multiple, linear, DNA chromosomes

Option D: multiple, circular, DNA chromosomes

Option B: a singular, circular DNA chromosome

A student is looking through a microscope and sees cellulose being laid down in the middle and two nuclei beginning to form. What is the student viewing?

Option A: An animal cell in anaphase

Option B: An animal cell in telophase

Option C: A plant cell in anaphase

Option D: A plant cell in telophase

Option E: A bacterium going through binary fission

Option C: A plant cell in anaphase

The DNA in chromosomes must be highly compacted to fit into the nucleus. What impact would you predict this has on gene function?

Option A: The eukaryotic genome is as compact as possible, with little "junk DNA" and many overlapping genes.

Option B: Gene transcription requires opening up the chromatin to expose the DNA nucleotides.

Option C: The nuclear envelope breaks down in G0 to allow for gene expression.

Option D: Genes are located only on the tips of chromosomes, in the regions called "telomeres".

Option B: Gene transcription requires opening up the chromatin to expose the DNA nucleotides.

As part of genetic testing, karyotype analysis is performed. What stage of the cell cycle is used for karyotyping, and why?

Option A: G1 - because the cell has not yet doubled the number of chromosomes.

Option B: Mitosis - because chromosomes are condensed and visible.

You got it right

Option C: S - because the DNA replication machinery is fluorescent.

Option D: G2 - because the extra DNA from S phase makes them easier to see.

Option B: Mitosis - because chromosomes are condensed and visible.

The most important role of the G2 checkpoint is to

Option A: ensure all chromosomes have been replicated.

Option B: ensure the cell has adequate energy reserves.

Option C: ensure the DNA has not been damaged.

Option D: ensure the cell is the appropriate size.

Option A: ensure all chromosomes have been replicated.

Viewing an onion cell through a light microscope, you can see the chromosomes are aligned midway between the poles of the cell. You can infer that the cell stage you are viewing is most likely:

Option A: G2

Option B: Anaphase

Option C: S

Option D: Metaphase

Option D: Metaphase

Vincristine (a plant alkaloid) binds to tubulin preventing formation of spindles. This drug would disrupt which event?

Option A: septum formation in prokaryotic cells

Option B: nuclear membrane disintegration in prophase

Option C: DNA synthesis

Option D: chromosome movement in mitosis

Option E: cell plate formation in cytokinesis

Option D: chromosome movement in mitosis

Which molecule initiates the halt of the cycle when damaged DNA is detected in G1?

Option A: Rb

Option B: p53

Option C: Cdk/cyclin complex

Option D: p21

Option E: E2F

Option B: p53

What result would you predict if mutant cohesin proteins stayed tightly bound together at the end of metaphase?

Option A: The spindle checkpoint would use special proteins to separate them.

Option B: A second round of DNA replication would occur.

Option C: Sister chromatids would be unable to separate, and the cell would stall in metaphase without completing karokinesis.

Option D: Nothing unusual - this is the normal condition until telophase.

Option C: Sister chromatids would be unable to separate, and the cell would stall in metaphase without completing karokinesis.

In which type of human cell(s) would 46 chromosomes be located? Select all that apply.

Option A :diploid

Option B :egg

Option C :somatic

Option D :gamete

Option E :sperm

Option F :haploid

Option A :diploid

Option C :somatic

Most of cell growth occurs during the _____ phase(s).

Option A: G1 or G2

Option B: Go

Option C: S

Option D: mitotic

Option A: G1 or G2

Mature cells that rarely, if ever, divide are said to be in what stage of the cell cycle?

Option A: Resting phase

Option B: Go

Option C: G2

Option D: Metaphase

Option B: Go

If a sperm contains 12 chromosomes, it came from an organism that had

Option A: 6 chromosomes

Option B: 12 chromosomes

Option C: 24 chromosomes

Option D: 36 chromosomes

Option C: 24 chromosomes

Binary fission begins with

Option A: primers.

Option B: promoters.

Option C: DNA replicaiton.

Option D: Formation of a septum.

Option C: DNA replicaiton.

A cell's entire amount of hereditary information is the

Option A: nucleoid.

Option B: nucleus.

Option C: genome.

Option D: DNA.

Option C: genome.

Which event most accurately describes cytokinesis?

Option A: Cell walls prevent cleavage furrow from deepening.

Option B: Actin molecules are used to develop the cell plate.

Option C: The metaphase plate is the beginning area for cytokinesis.

Option D: Phragmoplast develop in animal cells at the metaphase plate.

Option E: Cytokinesis can begin as early as metaphase.

Option C: The metaphase plate is the beginning area for cytokinesis.

Mutations in ________ may result in cancer development.

Option A: proto-oncogenes

Option B: oncogenes

Option C: Tumor

Option A: proto-oncogenes

In which phase is the cleavage furrow visible in animal cells?

Option A: interphase

Option B: prophase

Option C: prometaphase

Option D: metaphase

Option E: anaphase

Option F: telophase

Option F: telophase

In human cells, the chromosomes contain sister chromatids by the end of

Option A: cytokinesis.

Option B: prophase.

Option C: S phase.

Option D: G1.

Option E: anaphase.

Option C: S phase.

Binary fission describes the process of ______ in prokaryotes.

Option A: DNA compaction

Option B: Nucleosome formation

Option C: Cell division

Option D: DNA replication

Option C: Cell division

During which phase do structural support organelles and cellular movement organelles dismantle?

Option A: G1 Phase

Option B: S Phase

Option C: G2 Phase

Option D: G0 Phase

Option E: karyokinesis

Option C: G2 Phase

Homologous chromosomes are

Option A: chromosomes with identical DNA sequences at all loci.

Option B: also called 'sister chromatids' during mitosis.

Option C: chromosomes with the same genes at the same loci along their length.

Option D: inherited from the same parent.

Option C: chromosomes with the same genes at the same loci along their length.

If a researcher looks at a cell and notices a straight line of sister chromatids, which phase are they viewing?

Option A: interphase

Option B: prophase

Option C: prometaphase

Option D: metaphase

Option E: anaphase

Option F: telophase

Option D: metaphase

The cell spends most of its cell cycle in

Option A: prophase.

Option B: metaphase.

Option C: anaphase.

Option D: cytokinesis.

Option E: interphase.

Option E: interphase.

Order the levels of DNA compaction from lowest level of compaction to highest level of compaction.

Option A: Double helix,nucleosomes,chromatin fiber

Option B: Chromatin fiber,double helix,nucleosome

Option C: Nucleosome,chromatin fiber,double helix

Option D: Double helix,chromatin fiber,nucleosome

Option A: Double helix,nucleosomes,chromatin fiber

__________ microtubules are responsible for the elongation occurring in anaphase.

polar

Your study partner is trying to explain genetics to your four-year old brother. "A gene is like a recipe, and a trait is like the food made from the recipe." What would a chromosome be like?

Option A: a recipe book

Option B: the index card that the recipe is written on

Option C: a grocery store

Option D: pots and pans

Option A: a recipe book

The spindle apparatus of a cell must mechanically produce exactly the right level of tension. Too low and the chromosomes will not segregate properly; too high and chromosomes may be pulled to pieces. At what stage of mitosis is tension on chromosomes the highest?

Option A: Anaphase

Option B: Cytokinesis

Option C: Metaphase

Option D: Prometaphase

Option E: Prophase

Option F: Telophase

Option C: Metaphase

Which is the correct order of structure from smallest to largest?

Option A: gene, nucleotide, chromosome, genome

Option B: gene, genome, chromosomes, nucleotide

Option C: genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide

Option D: nucleotide, gene, chromosome, genome

Option E: nucleotide, genome, chromosome, gene

Option D: nucleotide, gene, chromosome, genome

Which statement correctly describes the events in interphase?

Option A: In G1 there mitotic spindles attach to centrosomes kinetochores.

Option B: In S phase there is nuclear division creating single chromatids.

Option C: In G2 there is twice as much DNA as there was in G1.

Option D: G0 is an active cell growth phase.

Option E: Karyokinesis can only occur after G0 phase has occurred.

Option C: In G2 there is twice as much DNA as there was in G1.