AUBF RATIONALE FINALS (copy)

Which of the following is NOT a function of amniotic fluid?

Promotes fetal digestion

Polyhydromnios is primarily caused by:

Decreased fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid.

The specimen collection for amniotic fluid is done through:

Amniocentesis

For fetal lung maturity testing, the amniotic fluid should be:

Placed on ice and frozen

The Fern Test is used to:

Detect ruptured membranes

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) levels are increased in:

Spina bifida

Decreased AFP levels suggest:

Down syndrome

The confirmatory tests for neural tube defects after an elevated AFP is:

Acetylcholinesterase test

A fetal age of 36 weeks can be indicated by amniotic fluid creatinine of:

2.0 mg/dL or higher

hCG is primarily produced by which cells?

cytotrophoblastic cells of placenta

Parietal cells of the stomach produce:

HCl and intrinsic factor

The chief cells in the stomach are responsible for secreting:

Pepsinogen

In Pernicious anemia, destruction of parietal cells leads to:

Achlorhydria

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by:

B. Gastric adenoma produces excess gastrin

In the Diagnex tubeless test, a positive result is indicated by:

Blue color in urine

Which structure primarily produces cerebrospinal fluid?

Choroid plexus

What is the average rate of CSF production

in adults?

20 mL/hour

The total volume of CSF in adults is

approximately:

90-150 mL

The main function of the blood-brain barriers

is to:

Protect the brain from harmful chemical in

blood

During lumbar puncture, the site of adults is

between which vertebrae?

L3-L4

Which CSF appearance indicates

xanthochromia?

Pink, orange, or yellow

Which of the following causes a cloudy or

turbid CSF appearance?

Elevated protein or WBCs

Which cell type predominates in bacterial

meningitis?

Neutrophils

Normal CSF WBC count in adults should not

exceed:

0-5 cells/uL

Which method is routinely used for CSF cell

counting?

Neubauer counting chamber

Which protein concentration in CSF is

considered normal?

5-45mg/dL

The presence of oligoclonal bands in CSF

electrophoresis indicates:

Inflammation within the CNS

Normal CSF glucose is approximately what

percent of plasma glucose?

60-70%

Which CSF test is the recommended

procedure by the CDC to diagnose

neurosyphilis?

VDRL

A pellicle formation in CSF most commonly

indicates:

Tubercular meningitis

Which of the following statements best

describes synovial fluid?

It is a viscous fluid found in movable joints

The viscosity of synovial fluid is primarily

due to:

Hyaluronic acid

What is the normal volume of synovial fluid

in a joint?

<3.5 mL

Which tube is used for synovial fluid

microbiology studies?

tube #1 - Sodium heparin

Which of the following anticoagulants must

be used for synovial fluid analysis?

Powdered anticoagulants and lithium heparin

What test is used to assess the viscosity of

synovial fluid?

Rope or Mucin Clot Test

Which reagent is used in the mucin clot test

for synovial fluid?

2-5% Acetic Acid

In a normal synovial fluid, which WBC type is

most abundant?

Monocytes/Macrophages

What is the normal WBC count in synovial

fluid?

<200/uL

Monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in

synovial fluid indicate which condition?

Gout

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (COPD)

crystals are associated with:

Pseudogout

Which microscopy technique determines

crystal birefringence?

Compensated polarizing microscopy

Transudates are primarily caused by:

Systemic disorders affecting pressure

regulation

A pleural hematocrit greater than 50% of

whole blood hematocrit indicates:

Hemothorax

Which of the following conditions most

commonly produces exudates?

Infection or malignancy

Which of the ff best describes serous fluid?

Fluid between visceral and parietal

membranes

Which of the ff are the three major types of

serous fluid?

Pleural, Pericardial, Peritoneal

What is the function of serous fluid?

To lubricate and reduce friction between

membranes

The accumulation of fluid between serous

membranes is called:

Effusion

Which of the ff best defines a transudate?

Effusion due to systemic disorders that alter

hydrostatic pressure

Which of the ff is a common cause of

transudate formation?

Congestive heart failure

Exudates differ from transudates because

they:

Are caused by direct membrane damage and

inflammation

Which of the ff is a cause of exudative

effusion?

Infection

Which anticoagulant is used for serous fluid

cell counting and differential counts?

EDTA

For microbiology and cytology tests, serous

fluid should be collected in:

Sterile heparinized tubes

serous fluid analysis, specimens for pH

determination must be:

Kept anaerobically in ice

A pleural fluid hematocrit greater than 50%

of whole blood hematocrit indicates:

Hemothorax

In hemorrhagic effusion, how is blood

distributed in the pleural fluid?

Evenly distributed

Which of the ff correctly differentiates

hemothorax from hemorrhagic effusion?

Hemothorax has pleural fluid >50% of blood

Hct

Which group of bacteria are known causative

agents of subacute bacteria, endocarditis?

HACEK group (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus,

Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella)

Which of the following is the most

convenient method of semen collection?

Masturbation

How long should sexual abstinence be

observed before semen collection?

2-3 days

What happens if the first portion of the

ejaculate is missed?

Decreased sperm count and falsely increased

pH

Normal semen appearance is described as:

Pearly gray-white and translucent

Increased white turbidity in semen indicates:

Presence of infection

The normal semen volume is:

2-5mL

Which of the ff conditions decreases sperm

motility?

Increased viscosity

normal pH of semen is:

7.2-8.0

Under Kruger’s strict criteria, normal sperm

morphology must be:

>14%

the Modified Bloom’s Test, live sperm

appear:

Unstained, bluish-white

Absence of spermatozoa in semen is termed:

Azoospermia

What reagent gives an orange-red color in

the esorcinol for semen fructose?

Resorcinol reagent

The function of Prostate-Specific Antigen

(PSA) is to:

Regulate seminal fluid viscosity

In the Immunobead Test, attachment of

beads to sperm head, neck, or tail indicates:

Antisperm antibodies

After vasectomy, semen analysis is

continued until:

Two consecutive monthly specimens show no

sperm

Which of the ff is the urine specimen of

choice for cytology studies?

Random specimen

Which of the ff will not cause erroneous

results in a 24-hour timed urine collection?

Two first morning specimens are included in

the evening

25-year olf woman complains of painful

urination and is suspected of having a UTI.

Which of the ff specimens should be

collected for a routine urinalysis and urine

culture?

Midstream clan catch specimen

Which of the following tests requires a timed

urine collection?

Creatinine clearance test

An unpreserved urine specimen collected at

midnight is kent at room temperature until

the morning hospital shift. Which of the

following changes will most likely occur?

Decrease in glucose and ketones

If refrigeration is used to preserve a urine

specimen, which of the following may occur?

Amorphous crystals may precipitate

Which of the following substances is higher

in urine than in any other body fluid?

Creatinine

When the body is dehydrated, the kidneys

excrete solutes in as small a volume of urine

as possible.

Which of the following solutes are present in

the largest molar amounts in urine?

Urea, chloride, and sodium

Renal excretion is not involved in the

elimination of

electrolytes and water.

The concentration of which substances

provides the best means of distinguishing

urine from other body fluids?

Creatinine and urea

The ultrafiltrate in the urinary space of the

glomerulus has a specific gravity of

1.010 and the same osmolality as the blood

plasma.

The urine specimen was placed in a

refrigerator while the laboratory determined

whether the physician wanted a microscopic

examination performed (i.e., the request slip

was not appropriately completed). When the

specimen was later removed to prepare an

aliquot for microscopic analysis, the

specimen was still orange but was now

cloudy. Which of the following statements

best explains this increase in urine turbidity?

Because of the temperature change, normal

urine solutes have precipitated

Select the primary reason why tablet (e.g.,

Ictotest) and chemical tests (e.g.,

sulfosalicylic acid precipitation test)

generally are performed.

Their specificity differs from that of the

reagent strip test.

Which of the following proteins originates in

the urinary tract?

Uromodulin

Which of the following is not a distinguishing

characteristic of yeast in the urine sediment?

Motility

Which of the following statements about

Bence Jones protein is correct?

The protein consists of Kappa and Lambda

light chains.

Which of the following aids in the

differentiation of hemoglobinuria and

hematuria?

Microscopic examination

Microscopic examination of a urine sediment

revealed an average of 2 to 5 white blood

cells per high-power field, whereas the

leukocyte esterase test by reagent strip was

negative. Which of the following statements

best accounts for this discrepancy?

The amount of esterase present is below the

sensitivity of the reagent strip test.

The microscopic identification of

hemosiderin is enhanced when the urine

sediment is stained with

Prussian blue stain

A urine sediment could have which of the

following formed elements and still be

considered "normal"?

Two or fewer hyaline casts

Which urinary sediment component(s) when

observed microscopically can resemble red

blood cells?

1. Yeasts

2. Air bubbles

3. Oil droplets

4. Calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals

All are correct

Which statement regarding lymphocytes

found in urine sediment is correct?

Their number is increased in patients

experiencing kidney transplant rejection.

All of the following enhance urinary cast

formation except

an alkaline pH.

Which of the following urinary casts are

diagnostic of glomerular or renal tubular

damage?

Red blood cell casts