an tech final

the growth plate of the bone is located at

the epiphyseal plate

this is an incomplete fracture

comminuted

what are ways to classify a fracture

severity, shape of the fracture, whether it breaks through the skin

the absence of deep pain following a spinal cord injury for greater than 24-48 hours is

poor

greenstick fractures are more common in

young pts

transverse fractures are defined as fractures

along the short axis of the bone

oblique fractures are defined as fractures

diagonal to the axis of the bone

a comminuted fracture is defined as a fracture with three or more pieces 1

true 1

an open fracture is defined as a fracture open to the environment larger than 2cm 2

false 2

a spiral fracture is an incomplete fracture 3

false 3

salter-harris classification is used to classify epiphyseal plate fracture 4

true 4

salter-harris fractures are common in

young pts

which of the following areas would you NOT find an articular fracture

femoral shaft

stage 1 of fracture healing is

hematoma

stage 4 of fracture healing is

callus remodel

cast application is appropriate for which of the following fractures

greenstick

which of the following is NOT a force affecting fractures

shock

external fixation is all of the following except

bone plate

when two pieces of a fracture are placed together, this is termed

reducing

which of the following will effect fracture healing

fracture reduction, fracture type, vascularity

(all affect healing)

IM pins are also know as

intramedullary pins

external fixators (like a KE fixator) are best used for

comminuted open fractures

titanium is the cheapest type of metal used in external fixation devices 5

false 5

IVDD can affect cervical, caudal thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae 6

true 6

the gel like inner layer of the intervertebral disk is also called the annulus fibrosus 7

false 7

how does the femoral head change in canine hip dysplasia

it becomes flattened

which of the following breeds is most likely to get hip dysplasia

golden retriever

the socket of the hip joint is the

acetabulum

surgical correction of patella luxation includes

tibial crest transposition

the most effective use for a rongeur is to

remove small pieces of bone

what is a Steinmann IM pin

an intramedullary pin used in orthopedics

all of the following are functions of the meniscus except

produces fluid to lubricate

femoral head removal is a surgical option for tx of canine hip dysplasia in

dogs in late stages of hip dysplasia, dogs in early stages of hip dysplasia, older dogs

(all of the above)

an animal is to be prepared for FHO surgery. what part of the body is prepped

coxofemoral joint

all of the following are corrections for CCL tear except

TPO

hip dysplasia is a common dz in larger breeds 8

true 8

patellar luxation’s are graded on a scale of 1-5 9

false 9

ortolani test is the manipulation used to subluxate a stifle joint for diagnostic purposes 10

false 10

a dog with any stages of hip dysplasia can undergo a total hip replacement 11

true 11

the kern forceps is used for muscle retractions, especially in orthopedic and neurologic sx 12

false 12

the purpose of sx tx for a CCL tear is to stabilize the coxofemoral joint 13

false 13

wit most cases of elbow dysplasia, the sooner the sx is accomplished the better the prognosis; this will prevent DJD from ever occurring 14

false 14

a joint mouse is defined as a soft bone or cartilage, typically floating around the joint space, which has detached from a bone 15

true 15

an FHO requires the pt to be free of degenerative joint dz and is typically preformed within the age range of 4-15 months old 16

false 16

males are more commonly affected by elbow dysplasia, whereas females have a higher incidence of CCL tears 17

true 17

due to growth plates closing at around 5-6 months of age, that time frame is the earliest dogs affected by elbow dysplasia can be diagnosed 18

true 18

this phase of wound healing begins approximately 6 hours after injury and is characterized by an influx of white blood cells

debridement

a scab provides wound strength 19

false 19

a surgical wound that has been mildly contaminated and then lavaged during gastrointestinal sx would be classified as which of the following wounds

clean contaminated

time range for the golden period

6-8 hours

which phase of wound healing is characterized by remodeling of collagen fibers in the fibrous tissue and the alteration of their orientation and increased cross linking

maturation

wound healing is a dynamic process that has several factors that can either speed up or hinder the process. which of the following factors would stop the wound healing process

infection of the wound

what statement regarding primary (first) intention wound healing of a clean wound is FALSE

it always has some degree of suppuration or pus formation

what is the proper term for trimming the edges of a jagged wound that is most likely necrotic tissue before suturing

debridement

healing of a properly sutured surgical wound is most appropriately termed what

primary (first) intention

what is the name of the third phase of the wound healing process

repair

the goal of lavaging a wound is

to decrease the number of microorganisms in a wound to a number that the immune system can handle

a wound that results from a HBC accident and hasnt been debrided or lavaged, would be classified as which of the following

contaminated

honey and sugar are novel treatments being used in wound healing. honey and sugar act like which solutions in order to draw exudate from the wound and potentially reducing edema

hypertonic solution

which of the following is an example of an active drain system

jackson pratt

out of all the solutions listed below, which would be the most appropriate for lavaging a very superficial yet contaminated wound that we are going to let heal by second intention healing

sterile saline

wound contraction can be limited when the skin around the wound is tight and under tension 20

true 20

which of the following is an example of a passive drain

penrose

a wet to dry bandage is best for what type of wounds

contaminated wounds that need to be debrided

antibiotics should not be added to solutions used to lavage wounds 21

true 21

which of the following numbers is the critical number of bacteria to indicate infection

>100,000 bacteria/grams of tissue

which of the following sx should receive antibiotics post op

2hr exploratory (anything over 90 min)

which person is moistening tissues during sx

the scrubbed in assistant

what is not a sign of blood loss

decreased heart rate

pain medication should be started when

administered with premedication

what is part of a three layer closure

skin, linea alba, sub q

for most of the surgeries that were discussed, when should the sutures be removed

10-14 days post op

which suture pattern is more secure, due to its individualized stitches

simple interrupted

when is the preferred time to remove dewclaws and dock tails in puppies

1-2 weeks old

besides the claw, what portion is being removed in a declaw

P3

which is NOT a declaw method we discussed in class

ronguer method

it is recommended to use 75% paper litter with 25% clay litter immediately post declaw 22

false 22

post declaw bandages should be left on for 7 days for optimum healing 23

false 23

all the following are acceptable heating methods for sx except

a technicians hands

the tourniquet is always placed ________ to the elbow during a declaw

distal

an animal should be fed approximately ______ after GI sx

24 hours

who will open up instruments and suture during sx and assist the anesthetist

circulating (nonsterile) nurse

complete dehiscence of the abdominal cavity would result in a pneumothorax 24

false 24

the pancreases and spleen would both be considered a hollow viscera 25

false 25

antibiotics and analgesics are typically given 20 minutes prior to sx, so the therapeutic levels are present at the time of initial incision 26

true 26

what is the tx for blood loss

crystalloids, colloids, blood transfusion, oxyglobin, pressure bandage

(all of the above)

it is important to apply a cream or ointment after a sx to protect the incision and decrease infection 26

false 26

it is not necessary for a technician to do a sponge count if they are monitoring the pt/sx extremely close 27

false 27

which of the following are abnormalities to look out for when checking an incision

redness, swelling, discoloration, seroma/hematoma, seepage, dehiscence

(all of the above)

nasogastric and nasoesophageal tubes are indicated in pts that

are anorexic

cachexia refers to the loss of body fat and can be seen in pts with cancer, congestive heart failure, and renal dz 28

false 28

when placing an orogastric tube, measure from the tip of the nose to the _____ rib

13th

the proper recumbency for placing an orogastric tube is _______ recumbency

sternal

it is believed a nasogastric tube creates a small opening at the distal esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter) which can allow reflux to occur 29

true 29

flushing an NE or NG tube with warm water or sterile saline before and after helps to verify patency and prevent clogging 30

true 30

it is necessary to suture in an esophagostomy tube 31

true 31

gastrostomy tubes should be left in for how many days, giving time for good stoma formation

5-7 days

our best choice for feeding a pt, is the pts normal diet, fed through a gastrostomy tube 32

false 32

when referring to a PEG tube, PEG stand for

percutaneous endoscopic gastropexy

a pt is usually left int left lateral recumbency for esophagostomy tube placement 33

false 33