BKAT ICU Post Test

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Last updated 2:04 AM on 8/5/26
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140 Terms

1
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Nitroprusside purpose

decreases preload and afterload by vasodilation (mainly afterload)

2
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Dobutamine mechanism of action

contractility

3
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Dopamine at a low-end dose "renal dose"

0.5-4mcg/kg/min

increases renal and mesentric perfusion

4
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Dopamine at a mid-range dose

4-10mcg/kg/min

increases contractility and heart rate

5
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Dopamine at a high-range dose

greater than 10mcg/kg/min

vasoconstriction and increases BP

6
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Dopamine and Levophed infiltration

leads to tissue necrosis

7
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Dopamine antidote

regitine (phentolamine)

8
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TpA monitor for

bleeding-hemorrhagic CVA

9
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diltiazem (cardizem) works by?

(calcium channel blocker) slows ventricular rate by slowing conduction through the SA and AV node

10
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Diltazem (cardizem) biggest effect on which hemodynamic

hypotension

11
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diltazem is used for patients with

a-fib or a-flutter

12
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amiodarone (Cordarone) is a

antiarrythmic

prolongs the cardiac duration

13
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You MUST use a __________ when using amiodarone infusion

0.22 micron filter

14
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Watch out for ____________ in patients on a amiodarone infusion

hypotension, prolongation of QT interval and bradycardia

15
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amiodarone is used for patients with

a-fib, a-flutter and VT

16
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how much amiodarone is given to a stable VT with a pulse and a unstable pulseless VT/VF?

150mg over 10min for VT with pulse

300mg push; repeat x1 at 150mg

17
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Epinephrine has what effect on the body?

increases HR, BP, and contractility

18
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what is the first line drug for pulseless arrest?

Epinephrine

19
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What rhythms are considered fatal?

V-fib, Vtach (pulseless), and asystole

20
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Epinephrine is also given for?

anaphylaxis and as a vasopressor for hypotension

21
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Heparin is used for? Antidote is?

anticoagulant

Protamine Sulfate

22
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What is the osmotic diuretic of choice to decrease intracranial pressure?

mannitol

23
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How does mannitol work?

pulls fluids into intravascular space to be excreted by the kidneys to reduce intracranial pressure

24
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what insulin is given IV?

What is the peak?

Regular insulin can only be given IV

2-4 hr peak time

25
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Which insulin has a peak of 8-14 hrs?

NPH

26
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Atropine is ineffective in which heart rhythms types?

high degree AV blocks: 2nd degree type2 and 3rd degree

27
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Atropine works by?

increasing heart rate-increasing conduction through SA node

28
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Atropine is given to treat?

symptomatic bradycardia

29
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Dilantin is given to treat

seizure disorders

30
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DO NOT give __________ with dilantin because ________ will happen.

DO NOT give with dextrose containing solutions because it will crystalize

31
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Which corticosteroid is usually given in insufficient adrenal activity or hypersensitivity/inflammation reactions?

Cortisone

32
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If chronically using cortisone be sure to _____ to prevent _____.

If chronically using cortisone be sure to taper the medications to prevent acute adrenal insufficiency

33
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This medication is a cardiac glycoside that increases contractility.

Digoxin

34
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Digoxin increases contractility by

slowing the heart rate which decreases conduction through the AV node

35
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What should be monitored in patients taking Digoxin?

hypotension, bradycardia, and symptoms of toxicity

36
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Signs/Symptoms of Digoxin toxicity

nausea, yellow vision/halo, paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT with block).

37
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True/Flase:

Digoxin WILL NOT cause rapid AV conduction or hypertension

True

38
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what medication is a antiarrhythmic that suppresses automaticity and depolarization?

lidocaine

39
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Lidocaine is used to treat?

ventricular dysrhythmias

40
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lidocaine toxicity sign

mental confusion/change in LOC

41
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Monitor serum levels with _________

Lidocaine

42
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DO NOT give _______ medications to patients with suppressed respirations

Narcotics (morphine, dilaudid)

43
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What changes on a EKG would you expect to see on a patient with a acute MI?

ST elevation

44
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normal QRS:

Prolonged QRS indicates:

45
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Distinguishing V-fib

fibrillatory waves with no recognizable pattern

Defib the Vfib

46
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Distinguishing V-Tach

atrial rhythm and rate cannot be identified

"Tombstones"

<p>atrial rhythm and rate cannot be identified </p><p>"Tombstones"</p>
47
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First degree block interpretation

looks like sinus rhythm but the PR is longer than normal. there will be 1 p for every qrs, but the PR interval will be greater than 0.20 sec

48
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Type 1 second degree block interpretation

"Wenckebach"

"Longer, Longer... drop" prolonged PR intervals and the missing QRS

<p>"Wenckebach"</p><p>"Longer, Longer... drop" prolonged PR intervals and the missing QRS</p>
49
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Type 2 second degree block interpretation

PR interval is constant...QRS is missing

"2 small p waves right after each other"

give atropine, dopamine, or epi to increase HR is symptomatic bradycardic

<p>PR interval is constant...QRS is missing</p><p>"2 small p waves right after each other"</p><p>give atropine, dopamine, or epi to increase HR is symptomatic bradycardic</p>
50
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Third degree AV block interpretation

a strip of p-waves laid independently over a strip of QRS complexes. Note that the p wave doesn't conduct the QRS complex that follows it.

<p>a strip of p-waves laid independently over a strip of QRS complexes. Note that the p wave doesn't conduct the QRS complex that follows it.</p>
51
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A-flutter interpretation

abnormal p-waves that produce a saw-tooth appearance

<p>abnormal p-waves that produce a saw-tooth appearance</p>
52
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Failure to Capture interpreation

spike without a complex

53
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Failure to Pace interpretation

no pacemaker activity or spike at the set rate on an ECG. usually caused by battery or circuit failure, cracked or broken pacing leads, loose connections, oversensing, or the pacing output is too low--->can lead to asystole

54
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Failure to Sense

undersensing: giving help when not needed; spikes occur on the ECG where they shouldnt

55
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Pacemaker ECG rhythms

failure to capture: spike without a p wave or QRS complex following it

failure to pace: no spike on ECG at the rate set

failure to sense:

spike when intrinsic activity already present (undersensing)

no spike when patient needs it

(oversensing)

56
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Which ventricular stimulus is dangerous

R on T phenomenon

57
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Indications for a pacemaker?

symptomatic bradycardia

higher AV blocks (2nd degree type 2 or Complete)

58
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what is not a treatment for higher degree AV blocks

atropine

because of the impaired conduction through the AV node

59
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A-flutter happens because?

an irritable spot of the atrium fires rapidly

60
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A-flutter can cause _______

an increase in ventricular rate

61
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A-flutter is treated by:

antiarrhythmics (cardizem, beta blockers)

cardioversion

62
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What do you do if you notice a lethal rhythm on the monitor (VT/VF)?

check the patient first

-establish unresponsiveness

call for help

-begin CPR if needed

63
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When defibrillating VT/VF use _____ joules for biphasic defibrillator or _____ joules for monophasic.

200

360

64
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Normal PR interval is

0.12-0.20 seconds

65
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Patient presents with anginal pectoris. what is initial management?

allow rest, amdinister oxygen, nitroglycerin, etc.

66
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Causes of elevated cardiac enzymes

MI, pericarditis, closed chest trauma, cardiac surgery

67
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Goal of treatment for cardiogenic shock (any shock)

increase the patient's cardiac output

68
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A patient exhibits depression after their recent MI, you should

encourage the patient to verbalize their concerns and allow interaction with family

69
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How does a cardiac tamponade occur

blood or fluid accumulates in the pericardial space

70
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what does a cardiac tamponade do to the heart

prevents the heart to pump effectively (impaired ventricular filling and contraction)

71
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S/S of cardiac tamponade

pulsus paradoxus, decreased BP, JVD, tachycardia, muffled heart sounds

72
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PAP values

Systolic: 15-25

Diastolic: 8-18

73
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PAOP (wedge)

6-12

74
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PA Catheter waveforms

knowt flashcard image
75
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PAOP (wedge) reflects pressures in the

left ventricle

76
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An elevated PAOP may indicate

left ventricular failure

77
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If you notice a continual PAOP wave form is present you should

ensure the balloon is deflated, reposition the patient and try have the patient cough

78
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You should not do what to PA catheter if a continual wedge pressure is present

Flush the line

79
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What reading reflects the right atrium

CVP

80
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An elevated CVP may indicate

fluid overload, right ventricular failure, pulmonary HTN, cardiac tamponade

81
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Eventually ______ sided heart failure will lead to an elevated _______.

right sided HF will eventually lead to increased CVP

82
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decreased CVP can be from

hypovolemia

83
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True/False

Medication can be administered through an a-line

False: no medications are to be given via a-line

84
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Arterial line waveform:

-Overdampened

-Underdampened

-dicrotic notch on the downslope

-overdampened: air bubbles, blood clots, kinked tubing, loose connections

-underdampened:excessive tubing length or too many stopcocks

<p>-dicrotic notch on the downslope</p><p>-overdampened: air bubbles, blood clots, kinked tubing, loose connections</p><p>-underdampened:excessive tubing length or too many stopcocks</p>
85
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How long should pressure be held when removing an a-line

5-10 minutes

86
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Why would a ventilators high pressure alarm be sounding

increased secretions or mucus plugs

patient biting on the tube

coughing or trying to talk

pulmonary edema

*anything that would cause decreased airway compliance

87
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Why would a ventilators low pressure alarm be sounding

not enough air moving through the ventilator circuit

*most commonly due to disconnection of tubing

88
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You have a patient that just received thoracic surgery.

-You should observe/assess for?

-how much is considered excess drainage output for this patient post op

-how do you know it is working properly

-you should never.....

-assess for air leaks, chest tube drainage quality, breath sounds

-anything greater than 150ml/hr is excessive drainage

-the water seal chamber should fluctuate with respiration, but there should not be bubbles

-never raise the chest tube drainage system above the level of the chest

89
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in a chest tube what breath sound would indicate atelectasis

diminished

90
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After a patient is intubated you should?

get an x-ray to confirm placement and confirmed by a physician

RN should listen for bilateral breath sounds

91
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When caring for patients with ETT or trach always assess

placement and cuff function

92
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Your patient with an ETT is making audible sounds (or can be a trach without a passy-mauir valve) it is most likely related to....

the cuff is deflated which allows air to pass through the vocal cords

93
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In a patient with any kind of chest trauma ALWAYS assess for symptoms of

pneumothorax

impaired gas exchange, SOB

94
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S/s of tension pneumothorax

deviated trachea, acute respiratory distress

95
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trauma patients are at risk for developing _____ embolisms, especially those with long bone fractures.

fat

96
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S/s of fat embolus

may develop after surgery

SOB, tachycardia, petechiae over upper body

97
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Your patient has diminished breath sounds and you notice limited movement of their chest. This can indicate possible atelectasis due to ____________

hypoventilation

98
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ABG Interpretation

pH: 7.35-7.45

PaCO2: 35-45

HCO3: 22-26

(ROME)

<p>pH: 7.35-7.45</p><p>PaCO2: 35-45</p><p>HCO3: 22-26</p><p>(ROME)</p>
99
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What antibiotics are given to TB patients

INH, Rifampin, Rocephin

100
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What antibiotics should be renal-dosed

Vancomycin, gentamycin, and tobramycin