Integumentary System Flashcards

A comprehensive set of 100 question-and-answer flashcards covering the anatomy, functions, disorders, and clinical procedures related to the integumentary system based on Chapter 5.

What structures are included in the integumentary system?

The skin and accessory organs such as hair, nails, sweat glands, and subcutaneous tissue.

What is the definition of dermatology?

The study of skin and its accessory components.

What is the role of a medical assistant (MA) in a dermatology office?

Assisting with various procedures involved in diagnosing and treating skin disorders.

What function do sweat glands perform to regulate body temperature?

They cool the body.

What is the purpose of sebum released by sebaceous glands?

To lubricate the skin and hair follicles and help inhibit bacterial growth.

What protein forms the outermost layer of the skin and acts as a waterproof barrier?

Keratin

What pigment protects underlying tissue from ultraviolet exposure damage?

Melanin

Where are sensory receptors located that relay information to the brain to minimize injury?

In the dermis.

What is the normal internal body temperature maintained by the body systems?

$37^\circ C$ ($98.6^\circ F$)

What are the two skin mechanisms representing negative feedback in maintaining homeostasis?

Vasodilation and vasoconstriction, and activity and inactivity of sweat glands.

What type of tissue in the subcutaneous layer serves as an insulator?

Adipose tissue

What molecules does the skin contain to help synthesize vitamin D when exposed to UV light?

Precursor molecules

Which two minerals does Vitamin D help the small intestine absorb for bone metabolism?

Calcium and phosphorus

What are the three layers of the skin?

Epidermis, dermis, and the subcutaneous layer.

What is the basal cell layer of the epidermis primarily composed of?

Keratinocytes

Why is the epidermis layer described as avascular?

It does not contain blood vessels.

What is another name for the subcutaneous layer?

Hypodermis

What are the two types of fibers found in the dermis layer?

Collagen and elastin.

What is the specific function of collagen in the dermis?

It prevents the skin from tearing.

What term describes physical changes in the skin caused by irritants or localized infection?

Skin lesions

What is a macule?

A flat area of color change and a non-palpable skin lesion, such as a freckle.

What is a papule?

A solid elevation of less than $1\,cm$ in diameter with distinct borders.

How does a nodule differ from a papule?

A nodule is $0.5-1\,cm$ in diameter and extends deeper into the dermis.

What is a vesicle?

A small, raised blister containing clear fluid inside or under the epidermis.

What is a bulla?

A large vesicle greater than $1\,cm$, such as a burn blister.

What type of lesion is characterized by a vesicle filled with white cellular debris?

Pustule

Which primary lesion is described as a solid, elevated, flat-top lesion with indistinct borders?

Plaque

What is a wheal?

A transient, raised, edematous lesion caused by fluid accumulation in the dermis.

How do secondary lesions typically develop?

As a result of a complication of a primary lesion, such as repeated scratching.

What are scales in the context of skin lesions?

Thin, flaking layers of epidermis.

What is a fissure?

A linear, wedge-shaped crack extending into the dermis.

Which secondary lesion involves tissue loss of the epidermis and often the dermis?

Ulceration

Which bacteria are the common causes of impetigo?

Streptococcus or Staphylococcus aureus.

What is a common characteristic of the exudate in impetigo?

Honey-colored exudate.

When does acne vulgaris most commonly occur?

During puberty.

What is telangiectasia in the context of rosacea?

Visible dilated blood vessels.

What are the clinical manifestations of cellulitis?

Redness, tenderness, swelling, and warmth at the site.

Name three examples of fungal infections mentioned in the text.

Tinea pedis (athlete's foot), tinea cruris (jock itch), and tinea corporis (ringworm).

Which virus causes warts?

Human papilloma virus (HPV).

What virus causes shingles?

Herpes zoster virus.

What skin condition is caused by the parasite Sarcoptes scabiei?

Scabies

What is pediculosis?

An infestation caused by lice.

What characterizes seborrheic dermatitis?

Dry or moist, greasy-appearing scales and yellowish crusts on the scalp or face.

What is the common term for seborrheic dermatitis on an infant's scalp?

Cradle cap

What are seborrheic keratosis?

Benign, slightly raised, tan to black lesions that occur with aging (age spots).

What are common irritants that cause contact dermatitis?

Lotions, latex, and poison ivy.

What are the common symptoms of eczema?

Vesicular rash on the face, neck, elbows, and behind the knees and ears.

What characterizes psoriasis?

Discrete pink or red lesions covered with silvery scales.

What is the characteristic rash of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)?

A "butterfly" rash extending from one cheek across the nose to the other cheek.

What is frostbite?

A cold injury caused by exposure to subfreezing temperatures.

What are the signs of superficial frostbite?

Burning, tingling, numbness, and a white or grayish skin color.

How are burns classified based on depth?

Superficial-thickness (first degree), partial-thickness (second degree), and full-thickness (third degree).

What is the Rule of Nines?

An assessment tool using multiples of nine to calculate the percentage of total body surface area burned.

What layer of skin is affected by a superficial burn?

Only the epidermis.

How long does the discomfort typically last for a first-degree burn?

$$48\,hours$$

What layers are damaged in a partial-thickness burn?

Epidermis and dermis.

What are the healing times for superficial and deep partial-thickness burns?

Superficial heals in $10-14\,days$; deep heals in $21-28\,days$.

What characterizes the surface of a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

It may appear white, brown, or black and has a dry, leathery surface.

What distinguishes benign tumors from malignant ones?

Benign tumors are encapsulated and do not show asymmetry or border irregularity.

What is carcinoma in situ?

A malignant tumor confined to the site of origin without invasion.

Define metastasis in the context of skin cancer.

Malignant cells spreading to lymph nodes and developing secondary tumors in other organs.

What does the 'A' stand for in the ABCDE rule for melanoma?

Asymmetry (unequal halves of mole).

What does the 'D' stand for in the ABCDE rule for melanoma?

Diameter (increase in size to more than $6\,mm$).

Between what hours should a person stay out of the sun to prevent skin cancer?

$10\,a.m.$ to $4\,p.m.$

What is the minimum SPF recommended for sunscreen?

SPF of at least $15$

How often should sunscreen be reapplied during prolonged exposure?

Every two hours.

How is a percutaneous allergy test (scratch test) performed?

Allergen is applied to scratched or pricked skin, and a reaction is checked after $10-30\,minutes$.

How long must a patient stay in the office after a percutaneous allergy test?

$$30\,minutes$$

How long must the patch remain on the skin during a patch test?

$$48\,hours$$

What activities should a patient avoid while undergoing a patch test?

Bathing and activities that increase sweating.

What dose of extract is typically injected in an intradermal test?

$$0.1-0.2\,mL$$

What does the Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST) determine?

The level of antibodies when blood is mixed with allergens in a laboratory.

What is an excision biopsy?

Removal of the entire lesion for examination and analysis.

What is a punch biopsy?

Removal of a small section, such as the center, from a lesion for analysis.

What is a shave biopsy?

Cutting or shaving off a lesion or growth above the base line using a scalpel.

What is the MA's responsibility regarding a biopsy sample container?

Labeling the container and making it ready for transport to the lab with request forms.

What does skin appearance modification usually involve?

Removing or abrading the epidermis and outer layers of the dermis.

What is chemexfoliation?

The use of topical agents (chemical peel) to remove minor skin features like acne scars.

What concentration of Retin-A is typically used in chemical peels?

$0.05\%$ to $0.1\%$

What is the biological source of Botox?

The bacterium Clostridium botulinum.

How does Botox reduce the appearance of wrinkles?

It paralyzes the muscles of the face, causing the skin to feel smoother.

How often must a patient typically undergo Botox treatments?

Every $3$ to $4\,months$.

What is a dermabrader?

A handheld device that mechanically evens the layers of the skin.

What condition is dermabrasion commonly used to treat?

Scars resulting from acne vulgaris.

What must patients be educated about regarding photophobia post-dermabrasion?

It may be present for $6$ to $12\,months$ after the procedure.

What is Photothermolysis?

Another term for laser resurfacing.

What should the patient apply $3$ to $6\,weeks$ before laser resurfacing?

Tretinoin (Retin-A), alpha hydroxy solutions, or bleaches.

What safety equipment is mandatory for all personnel during laser resurfacing?

Eye protection recommended by the laser manufacturer.

How long can inflammation take to fade after laser resurfacing?

A minimum of $6\,months$.

What is the primary function of nails?

To protect heavily used, exposed surfaces.

Which skin layer contains fat cells to store reserve calories?

The subcutaneous layer.

What are the two exocrine glands found in the dermis?

Sebaceous and sweat glands.

Which secondary lesion is a dried exudate on the skin?

Crust

Which viral infection follows the dermatomes?

Herpes zoster (shingles).

What medications are used to treat the primary irritation of eczema?

Topical corticosteroids and antihistamines like diphenhydramine.

What is the role of antihistamines in allergy treatment?

To alleviate symptoms of allergies.

Which allergy test involves a single venipuncture?

Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST).

What is the objective of the ABCDE rule?

Early identification of signs of malignant melanoma.

What should an MA verify before a provider performs a biopsy?

If the provider has obtained the patient's informed consent.

What are the signs of deep frostbite after thawing?

Hard, mottled, edematous, and blue or gray skin with blister formation.