Lecture 1- pulm agents

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Last updated 1:48 AM on 7/1/26
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186 Terms

1
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metered dose inhaleres (MDI)

  • hand held

  • slow, deep inhalation

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spacers

  • attach to MDI to improve delivery to lungs

  • reduce oropharyngeal deposition

  • especially helpful for children or pts with poor coordination

3
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dry powder inhalers (DPI)

  • breath activated→ no need fro hand -breath coordination

  • delivers dry, micronized powder directly into lungs

  • generally easier to use than MDI

  • higher lung deposition than MDI

  • no spacer required

  • requires adequate inspiratory flow

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soft mist inhaler

  • delivered in spray designed to be easier to inhale than MDI

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nebulizer

  • converts liquid into aerosol.mist

  • less drug deposition in oropharynx

  • increased drug delivery to the lungs

  • useful fro children, elderly, or severely obstructed pts

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FVC

  • forced vital capacity

  • maximum amnt of air exhaled after deep breath

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FEV1

  • forced expiratory vol in 1 second

  • dx asthma: reversible decrease after bronchodialtors

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FEV1/FVC

  • ratio of how much air you can exhale in the first second compared to total capactiy

  • normal = 0.7-0.8

  • dx COPD: <0.7 post bronchodilators

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types of inhaled medications

quick acting

  • short acting beta agonist (SABA)

  • short acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)

long acting

  • long acting beta agonist (LABA)

  • long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA)

  • inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)

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bronchodilators

B: B2 agonist (SABA + LABA)

A: anticholinergics (SAMA + LAMA)

M: methylxanthines (therophylline)

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anti- inflammatory meds

S: steroids (ICS + oral)
L:
leukotriene inhibitors (montelukast)
M:
mast cell stabilizers (cromolyn)

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pulmonary bronchodilators

  • B2 adrenergic agonists agens

  • anticholinergics (muscarinic antagonists)

  • methylxanthines

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B2 adrenergic agonists- MOA

  • sympathomimetic drugs → activate B2 receptors in airway smooth muscle

  • promote brinchoDILATION

  • relieve bronchospasm

  • suppress histamine release

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B2 adrenergic agonists are most effective for:

  • acute bronchospasm

  • preventing exercise induced bronchospasm (EIB)

    • MC= albuterol

  • NO inflammatory effect

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short acting B2 adrenergic agonist (SABA)

  • albuterol

  • levalbuterol

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SABA uses

  • PRN for acute asthma attacks

  • EIB prophylaxis

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SABA pharmacokinetics

  • onset: immediate 5-15 min

  • peak effect: 30-60 minutes, relief up to 4-6 hours

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long acting B2 adrenergic agonists (LABA)

  • formoterol

  • salmeterol

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LABA uses

  • longer duration of action at least 12 hrs

  • monotherapy in asthma is contraindicated increased incidence of death when used alone

    • instead use (LABA + ICS)

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ADE inhaled SABA

  • generally well tolerated

  • possible but minimal: tachycardia, angina, palpitations, tremor

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ADE inhaled LABA

  • similar ADE as SABA

  • NO asthma monotherapy: increased risk of severe asthma events and asthma related death

  • never use alone in asthma; most first line therapy

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short acting muscarinic antagonists (SAMA) MOA

  • block ACh at muscarinic receptors (M3) relaxes airway smooth muscle ad reduces mucus secretion

  • block bronchoconstriction caused by activation of the parasympathetic nervous system

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SAMA uses

  • asthma: acute exacerbations

  • COPD: maintenance. reduce air trappings and improve exercise tolerance

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long acting muscarinic antagonists (LAMA)

  • aclidinium

  • tiotrapium

  • umeclidnium

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LAMA ADE

  • minimal systemic absorption→ mostly local effects

  • anticholinergic effects: dry mouth, blurred vision

  • possible increased IOP

    • avoid in pts with glaucoma

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SABA + SAMA

  • albuterol/ ipratropium

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LABA + LAMA

  • formoterol/aclidinium

  • formoterol/glycopyrrolate

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methylxanthines

  • theophylline

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methylxanthines MOA

  • relaxes airway smooth muscle→ bronchoDILATION

  • admin oral or IV

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DDI methylaxanthines

  • increases levels of:

    • propanolol, cimetitine, cipro, OCPs, allopurinol

  • decreases levels of:

    • phenytoin, carbamazepime, rifampin

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ADE methylxanthines

THEOPH

T- tremor

H- heart (arrythmia)

E- electrolyte imbalance (hypokalemia)

O- oxidase inhibition (CYP)

P- pain in abdomen

H- head (headache, seizure)

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ICS

  • budesonide

  • fluticasone propionate

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ICS MOA

  • suppress inflammation

  • improve lung function, decrease bronchial hyperractivity, reduce daily sx and exacerbation frequency

  • asthma: controller medications i

  • COPD: esosinophil >150 better response

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ICS ADE

  • thrush

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oral corticosterooids

  • prednisone

  • methylprednisolone

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oral corticosteroid uses

  • acute exacerbations of asthma or COPD

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oral corticosteroids ADE

  • long term/HIGH dose

  • adrenal suppression

    • stress dose required during trauma, infection, or surgery

  • hyperglycemia

  • PUD

  • growth suppression in children

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ICS + LABA (asthma)

  • budesonide/formoterol

  • fluticasone/ salmeterol

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ICS + LAMA + LABA

  • fluticasone/umeclidinium/vilanterol

  • budesonide/glycopyrrolate/formoterol

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leukotriene modifiers

  • montelukast

  • zileuton

  • zafirlukast

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leukotriene modifiers uses

  • ass on asthma maintenance, not acute attacks

  • EIB

  • aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease

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leukotriene modifiers MOA

  • Zileuton: inhibits leukotriene synthesis

  • zafirlukast and motelukast: leukotrien receptors antagonists

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leukotriene modifiers overall effects

  • smooth muscle relaxation

  • reduced airway edema

  • decreased infalmmation/mucus

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leukotriene modifiers ADE

  • common: headache, URI, n/v/d, pancreatitis

  • MSK: arthralgia, myalgia

  • GI: hepatic toxicity- monitor labs/Sx

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montelukast black box warning

  • serious neuropsychitric events

46
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leukotriene modifiers drug ineractions

  • increases levels of theophylline, warfarin, and propanolol

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mast cell stabilizers

cromolyn

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mast cell stabilizers MOA

  • prevents release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators

  • suppresses airway inflammation

  • no bronchodilation (not for acute attacks)

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mast cell stabilizers uses

  • prophylaxis fro mild asthma and EIB

  • option if glucocorticoids are contraindicated or not tolerated

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mast cell stabilizers ADE

  • cough, bitter taste

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omalizumab

  • binds free IgE and prevents mast cells and basophil activation

  • severe allergic asthma

  • anaphylaxis

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dupilimab

  • blocks IL-4 adn IL-13 interaction

  • severe eosinophilic asthma

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benralizumab

  • inhibits binding if IL-5 to receptor

  • severe esoinophilic asthma

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resilizumab

  • bind directly to IL-5 and inhibit receptor binding

  • severe esopsiniophilic asthma

  • anaphylaxis

55
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PDE-4 inhibitors

roflumilast

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PDE-4 inhibitors MOA

  • relax smooth muscle by inhibiting inflammatory cell activation and release by increasing cAMP

  • no bronchodilation effects

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PDE-4 inhibitors uses

  • severe COPD, not for asthma

  • chronic bronchitis

  • severe airflow obstruction

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abx for COPD

  • azythromycin

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abx for COPD- uses

  • prophylaxis for COPD

  • former smokers

  • >65

  • frequent exacerbations

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abx for COPD- ADE

  • hearing impairment

  • QTc prolongation

  • antimicrobial resistance

  • GI sx

61
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Beta-lactam antibiotics disrupt cell wall formation by interfering with which specific proteins?

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

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The inhibition of transpeptidation by beta-lactams leads to what outcome for the bacterial cell?

A weak cell wall and subsequent cell death.

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To which antibiotic class do Penicillin G, Amoxicillin, and Ampicillin belong?

penicillins

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Penicillins are highly active against which type of Gram (+) organisms?

Gram (+) cocci, such as Streptococci and Enterococci.

65
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Which extended-spectrum penicillin adds coverage for Pseudomonas?

Piperacillin

66
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What is the primary purpose of adding a beta-lactamase inhibitor to a penicillin?

To broaden coverage to include Staphylococcus aureus, Enterobacterales, and anaerobes.

67
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Amoxicillin-clavulanate

A combination of a penicillin and a beta-lactamase inhibitor used to broaden antimicrobial coverage.

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Cephalosporins generally show a progressive increase in activity against which type of bacteria across generations?

gram -negative

69
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Which generation of cephalosporins is characterized by excellent Gram (+) activity but only modest Gram (−) activity?

first generation

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Cephalexin and Cefazolin are examples of _____ cephalosporins.

first generation

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What additional coverage do second-generation cephalosporins like Cefuroxime and Cefoxitin provide compared to the first generation?

Better Gram (−) activity and some anaerobic coverage

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Third-generation cephalosporins such as Ceftriaxone exhibit strong activity against which bacterial group?

enterobacterales

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Which specific third-generation cephalosporin adds coverage for Pseudomonas?

ceftazidime

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Cefepime belongs to the _____ generation of cephalosporins and offers the broadest spectrum including Pseudomonas.

fourth

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What is the unique antimicrobial target of the fifth-generation cephalosporin Ceftaroline?

MRSA

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Which class of beta-lactams, including Meropenem and Imipenem, possesses the broadest spectrum of all beta-lactams?

carbapenems

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Carbapenems are effective against MDR infections and active against which three categories of organisms?

Gram (+), Gram (−), and anaerobic organisms.

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Vancomycin belongs to the _____ class of antibiotics.

glycopeptide

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Vancomycin- MOA

Binds to peptidoglycan subunits to inhibit cell wall synthesis.

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Vancomycin is primarily used to treat Gram (+) infections caused by _____.

MRSA

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Aminoglycosides, such as Gentamycin and Amikacin, exert their effect by binding to the _____ ribosomal subunit.

30S

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Aminoglycosides are primarily active against which type of bacilli?

Aerobic Gram (−) bacilli (e.g., Enterobacterales, Pseudomonas)

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Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the _____ ribosomal subunit.

30S

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Doxycycline and Minocycline provide broad-spectrum activity against Gram (+), Gram (−), and which other distinct group?

Atypicals (e.g., Chlamydia, Mycoplasma, Rickettsia)

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Macrolides, such as Azithromycin and Erythromycin, bind to the _____ ribosomal subunit.

50S

86
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Macrolides are active against Streptococcus pneumoniae and which common atypicals?

Legionella, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma.

87
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Clindamycin is a member of the _____ antibiotic class.

lincosamide

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The mechanism of action for Lincosamides involves binding to the _____ ribosomal subunit.

50S

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While active against Gram (+) cocci and most anaerobes, Clindamycin notably lacks activity against _____.

enterococi

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Oxazolidinones, such as Linezolid, inhibit protein synthesis by preventing _____ from binding to the ribosome.

tRNA

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Linezolid and Tedizolid are specifically active against which resistant Gram (+) organisms?

MRSA and VRE (Vancomycin-resistant Enterococci)

92
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Fluoroquinolones inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by targeting which two enzymes?

DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV.

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Levofloxacin and Moxifloxacin are predominantly active against _____.

Gram (+) organisms and atypicals

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Which fluoroquinolone is specifically noted for its Gram (−) and Pseudomonas coverage?

ciprofloxacin

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Rifamycins, like Rifampin, inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by targeting which enzyme?

RNA polymerase

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Why are Rifamycins always used in combination therapy?

To prevent the rapid development of bacterial resistance.

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Rifampin is highly active against Staphylococci, S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, and _____.

mycobacteria

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Metronidazole belongs to the _____ antibiotic class.

nitroimidazole

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What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for Clostridium difficile infections?

metronidazole

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Metronidazole is active against which metabolic group of bacteria?

Obligate anaerobes (e.g., Bacteroides, Clostridium)