Commerce 1BA3 - Final Exam 7-13

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416 Terms

1
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1)

Temporarily organized groups that are formed to achieve particular goals or solve particular problems are called

A) work groups.

B) informal groups.

C) self-managed teams.

D) committees.

E) task forces.

task forces.

2
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2)

According to behavioural scientists,

A) members of larger groups tend to report higher levels of satisfaction.

B) informal groups are shown on organizational charts.

C) group members have a common goal and interact with each other.

D) groups have at least five members.

E) group members must interact face-to-face.

group members have a common goal and interact with each other.

3
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3)

As a group size increases

A) the group consistently performs better.

B) members become less inhibited about participating in group activities.

C) members become more satisfied with group membership.

D) performance on conjunctive tasks improves.

E) the group becomes more socially elaborate

the group becomes more socially elaborate

4
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Identify the proper sequence of group development activities.

A) Storming, forming, norming, performing, adjourning.

B) Forming, storming, performing, norming, adjourning.

C) Forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning.

D) Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.

E) Norming, forming, storming, performing, adjourning.

Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.

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During which stage of group development is conflict likely to develop?

A) Adjourning

B) Storming

C) Performing

D) Norming

E) Forming

Storming

6
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Which of the following equations is accurate?

A) Process losses = potential performance + actual performance

B) Actual performance = potential performance - process losses

C) Potential performance = actual performance + process losses

D) Process performance = actual performance - process losses

E) Potential performance = actual performance - process losses

Actual performance = potential performance - process losses

7
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A group performing a disjunctive task will perform at the level of

A) the average performance of all its members.

B) the member who is most friendly to other members.

C) its best member.

D) the relative process loss.

E) its worst member.

its best member.

8
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One reason for members reporting less satisfaction in larger groups is

A) conflict and dissension are less likely in larger groups.

B) they have more time to develop friendships with other group members.

C) individual members can identify less easily with the success of the group.

D) people are less inhibited about participating in larger groups.

E) opportunities for participation increase in larger groups.

individual members can identify less easily with the success of the group.

9
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Which of the following is a primary feature of virtual teams?

A) Superordinate goals.

B) Small group size.

C) Diversity of members.

D) Lack of face-to-face contact.

E) Team member stability.

Lack of face-to-face contact.

10
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A manager recommends an employee for a promotion because the employee stood up for the manager during a leadership crisis. Which reward allocation norm led the superior to recommend this employee for promotion?

A) Reciprocity

B) Equality

C) Equity

D) Social responsibility

E) Performance

Reciprocity

11
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On which task is the presence of only one poor performer most likely to damage group performance?

A) Conjunctive

B) Disjunctive

C) Reflexive

D) Complexive

E) Additive

Conjunctive

12
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A television news team consists of a reporter, a camera operator, and a sound technician. Their job is to get good news reports to the station in time to make the evening news. A bad story, a bad picture, or bad sound means they have failed. This is a(n) ________ task.

A) complexive

B) reflexive

C) conjunctive

D) disjunctive

E) additive

conjunctive

13
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Which of the following statements is most indicative of a process loss?

A) Bill forgot how to program FORTRAN computer language because he hadn't used it in ten years.

B) Carly was clearly the star of the group and they could not have completed the project on time without her participation.

C) Zeke worked harder when his colleagues were present than when he was alone.

D) As the task force got bigger, it encountered more coordination problems.

E) Nan experienced role conflict when her boss told her to do something that she felt was unethical.

As the task force got bigger, it encountered more coordination problems.

14
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The relationship between group size and group ________ is particularly complex and highly contingent upon the task being performed.

A) performance

B) member satisfaction

C) member participation

D) cohesiveness

E) norms

performance

15
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Which of the following is an example of process loss?

A) No one in the group could remember how to work the video machine.

B) Because the group was so large, communication became a problem.

C) After they failed to land the big contract, the status of the sales staff decreased.

D) After losing the game, the team was much less cohesive.

E) The source of the quality problems could have originated in any one of three separate departments.

Because the group was so large, communication became a problem.

16
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As a group performing an additive task gets bigger

A) process losses decrease.

B) group cohesiveness should increase.

C) the performance of the best member becomes more critical to group success.

D) the average productivity per member decreases.

E) potential group productivity decreases.

the average productivity per member decreases.

17
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Which of the following is an additive task for a group?

A) Working in a self-managed group.

B) Looking for a single error in a complicated computer program.

C) Picking grapes at harvest.

D) Writing a short story.

E) Passing water buckets along a human chain.

Picking grapes at harvest.

18
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Diverse groups tend to develop more ________ than less diverse groups.

A) slowly

B) loyalty norms

C) poorly

D) quickly

E) roles

slowly

19
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Tasks that depend on the performance of the best group member's performance are

A) disjunctive.

B) reflexive.

C) injunctive.

D) complexive.

E) conjunctive.

disjunctive.

20
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Which of the following is an example of a process loss?

A) disjunctive task

B) social loafing

C) loyalty norm

D) performance norm

E) reduced status

social loafing

21
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The group had trouble coordinating its efforts because it was so big. This is an example of

A) punctuated equilibrium.

B) a conjunctive task.

C) social loafing.

D) a process loss.

E) role ambiguity.

a process loss.

22
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In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, a critical point occurs

A) at the midpoint of the volume of work that has to be accomplished.

B) when the group enters the storming stage.

C) at the middle of Phase 1.

D) at the midpoint of the group's allotted time until deadline.

E) toward the end of Phase 2.

at the midpoint of the group's allotted time until deadline.

23
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In the punctuated equilibrium model of group development, the midpoint transition occurs

A) when half the group's time is elapsed.

B) at the beginning of Phase 1.

C) when half the group's work is done.

D) as the group enters the storming stage.

E) at the end of Phase 2.

when half the group's time is elapsed.

24
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In the stage model of group development, conflict is a particular problem

A) in the forming stage.

B) in the performing stage.

C) in the stage after norming.

D) in the adjourning stage.

E) in the stage before norming.

in the stage before norming.

25
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Lisa is a very religious person whose boss tells her to offer an illegal bribe to a government official to obtain a lucrative contract. What kind of role conflict is she experiencing?

A) Person-role

B) Role ambiguity

C) Intersender

D) Intrasender

E) Interrole

Person-role

26
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Darlene is a physician who is employed as the director of research for a large drug company. She often worries that her actions as a manager could possibly violate the physicians' code of professional conduct. This is most clearly an example of ________ conflict.

A) person-role

B) intrasender

C) intersender

D) role ambiguity

E) interrole

interrole

27
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Who is experiencing interrole conflict?

A) The head of engineering told Jan to do one thing and the head of design told her to do the opposite.

B) Jack is vice-president of sales and marketing.

C) The straw boss on the construction job was unsure if he was a worker or a supervisor.

D) The plant manager debated in his mind whether he should open the valve and risk polluting the environment.

E) Michael's boss told him to relax as he handed him another report to finish by the end of the day.

The straw boss on the construction job was unsure if he was a worker or a supervisor.

28
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The members of a work group are paid a group bonus according to the productivity of the group. Because of this, each member expects the other to perform at the highest level. This expectation is an example of which aspect of group structure?

A) Status

B) Cohesiveness

C) A norm

D) A disjunctive task

E) A role

A norm

29
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Which of the following statements about norms is true?

A) Norms cannot be targeted at a specific individual.

B) Norms are not an aspect of group structure.

C) Norms are generally unrelated to attitudes.

D) Roles are made up of "packages" of norms.

E) A person can have his or her own private, personal norm.

Roles are made up of "packages" of norms.

30
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The workforce petitioned management to be paid on an individual piece rate basis. Which reward allocation norm do the workers favour?

A) Social responsibility

B) Reciprocity

C) Loyalty

D) Equity

E) Equality

Equity

31
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The workforce petitioned management to be paid on an individual piece rate basis. Which reward allocation norm do the workers favour?

A) Social responsibility

B) Reciprocity

C) Loyalty

D) Equity

E) Equality

Equity

32
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The boss who constantly changes his mind can cause uncertainty for an employee. To put this another way,

A) intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity.

B) role ambiguity can cause interrole conflict.

C) role ambiguity can cause intersender role conflict.

D) person-role conflict can cause role ambiguity.

E) intersender role conflict can cause interrole conflict.

intrasender role conflict can cause role ambiguity.

33
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Which aspect of group structure most closely reflects the way members evaluate each other?

A) Status

B) Size

C) Roles

D) Norms

E) Diversity

Status

34
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Higher status group members ________ than lower status members.

A) have more influence

B) participate more

C) communicate more

D) are addressed more frequently

E) all of the above

all of the above

35
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Which of the following statements about status and communication is true?

A) Status has very little relation to communication in organizations.

B) Lower-status members do more talking.

C) Communication has a tendency to move down the status hierarchy.

D) People can be inhibited from communicating upward if status differences are large.

E) Most people like to communicate with others at their own status or lower

People can be inhibited from communicating upward if status differences are large.

36
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Janice thought that her summer job as a municipal garbage collector would be easy. Unfortunately, her supervisor tells her to do one thing one day and the exact opposite the next day. Janice's role ambiguity

A) stems from a role sender.

B) is a function of intersender role conflict.

C) is a function of person-role conflict.

D) is inherent in the job she performs.

E) stems from the social facilitation effect.

stems from a role sender.

37
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Which of the following statements about status is true?

A) In organizations, status symbols are more a part of the informal status system than the formal status system.

B) In most organizations, formal and informal status systems are equivalent.

C) All organizations have both formal and informal status systems.

D) Informal status in the organization is more likely than formal status to carry over into the community.

E) Most organizations try not to tie status symbols to assigned roles.

All organizations have both formal and informal status systems.

38
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Which of the following statements is true?

A) The "class clown" fills an emergent role in his or her school.

B) A group has at least three members.

C) Moving a heavy crate is a disjunctive task.

D) People with similar attitudes are less likely to form a group than those with different attitudes.

E) Equity norms allocate rewards equally to everyone in the group.

The "class clown" fills an emergent role in his or her school.

39
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Positions in a group that have attached to them a set of expected behaviours are called

A) status symbols.

B) attributes.

C) conjunctive tasks.

D) norms.

E) roles.

roles.

40
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Robin is a member of a task force that may do away with her own department. Robin is most obviously experiencing

A) role ambiguity.

B) intersender role conflict.

C) interrole conflict.

D) intrasender role conflict.

E) person-role conflict.

interrole conflict.

41
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Which of the following types of role conflict is most likely to provoke role ambiguity?

A) Interrole conflict

B) Intersender role conflict

C) Status-role conflict

D) Person-role conflict

E) Intrasender role conflict

Intrasender role conflict

42
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The first-line supervisor who serves as the interface between "management" and "the workers" is most likely to experience ________ role conflict when labour relations are poor.

A) boundary

B) status

C) person-role

D) intersender

E) intrasender

intersender

43
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Which of the following factors is most influential in achieving formal organizational status?

A) Assigned role in the organization

B) Nationality and religion

C) Age

D) Loyalty norms

E) Ability to perform disjunctive tasks

Assigned role in the organization

44
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The task force is large, successful, and experiencing moderate threat. Which factor would most likely prevent the task force from being cohesive?

A) Its tough initiation procedures

B) Its success

C) The threat

D) Its homogeneous makeup

E) Its size

Its size

45
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Highly cohesive work groups almost always

A) have high levels of turnover.

B) accomplish the goals of the organization effectively.

C) produce less than less cohesive groups.

D) produce more than less cohesive groups.

E) accomplish their own goals effectively.

accomplish their own goals effectively.

46
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Which factor is least likely to promote group cohesiveness?

A) Losing a contest

B) Experiencing a tough initiation into the group

C) Competing in a contest

D) Winning a contest

E) Small group size

Losing a contest

47
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Highly cohesive groups tend to be ________ than less cohesive groups.

A) less productive

B) larger

C) more conflict-ridden

D) more or less productive

E) more productive

more or less productive

48
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Which of the following statements concerning group cohesiveness is false?

A) Under extreme threat or loss of a contest, group cohesiveness is likely to suffer.

B) A group becomes more attractive to its members when it has successfully accomplished some important goal.

C) Smaller groups generally have a more difficult time becoming and staying cohesive.

D) Groups that are tough to get into should be more attractive than those that are easy to join.

E) Voluntary turnover from highly cohesive groups should be low.

Smaller groups generally have a more difficult time becoming and staying cohesive.

49
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Organizations that allocate rewards to those who truly need the rewards have adopted a reward system that is based on a(n) ________ norm.

A) social responsibility

B) reciprocity

C) loyalty

D) equality

E) equity

social responsibility

50
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Social loafing is an example of

A) role conflict.

B) role ambiguity.

C) a process loss.

D) punctuated equilibrium.

E) a disjunctive task

a process loss.

51
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Conventional specialized ________ usually disappear when effective self-managed teams are used by organizations.

A) norms

B) values

C) tasks

D) aspirations

E)roles

roles

52
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A successful self-managed work team would probably not be

A) high in social skills.

B) high in expertise.

C) extremely large.

D) performing an interesting task.

E) highly cohesive.

extremely large.

53
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Which factor is most important in leading to the success of a self-managed work team?

A) Great diversity of members

B) Great similarity of members

C) Extra pay

D) Large size

E) An interesting task

An interesting task

54
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Self-managed work groups typically

A) perform best when assigned to very routine tasks.

B) suffer from the free rider effect.

C) have highly specialized, carefully defined roles within the group.

D) are used only for white-collar work.

E) must have stable membership to be effective.

must have stable membership to be effective.

55
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What kind of tasks are most appropriate for self-managed work groups?

A) White-collar

B) Blue-collar

C) Conjunctive

D) Complex and challenging

E) Routine and boring

Complex and challenging

56
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All relevant specialties should be included when designing

A) virtual teams.

B) task forces.

C) cross-functional teams.

D) self-managed teams.

E) any kind of team.

cross-functional teams.

57
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The technologies used by virtual teams tend to be

A) asynchronous ones.

B) either asynchronous or synchronous ones.

C) chat and groupware.

D) synchronous ones.

E) email, faxes, and voice mail.

either asynchronous or synchronous ones.

58
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Virtual teams are

A) groups that use technology to accomplish their tasks and communicate with other groups in the organization.

B) groups of people who have expertise in technology and are always available when needed to complete a task.

C) groups that exist throughout an organization and include customers and suppliers.

D) groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and organizational boundaries.

E) groups of individuals who are always available when the organization needs to form a team.

groups that use technology to communicate and collaborate across time, space, and organizational boundaries.

59
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The team members' shared beliefs that their team can successfully perform a given task is known as ________.

A) mutual-gain

B) collective self-interest

C) collective efficacy

D) self-efficacy

E) mutual satisfaction

collective efficacy

60
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Just because a sports team has the most talented players, it does not necessarily mean the team will be the most successful in the league. The team usually needs to have a strong sense of ________ in order to become better than simply the sum of its players.

A) homogeneity

B) collective efficacy

C) ethnic diversity

D) self-efficacy

E) fear

collective efficacy

61
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The textbook cites the example of how job seekers at Britain's Pret A Manger sandwich and coffee shops must work in a shop for a day and then the staff votes on whether the person can join the team This is one strategy that can be used to help ensure the ________ of a new employee.

A) heredity

B) compensation

C) heterogeneity

D) fit

E) homogeneity

fit

62
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When team members share identical information about how they should interact and what their task is, they are experiencing ________.

A) shared mental models

B) shared heritage

C) shared leadership

D) shared litmus testing

E) shared status

A) shared mental models

63
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Uncovering shared mental models in many cross-functional teams can often be challenging because of the ________.

A) slow moving process of working in a cross-functional team

B) reluctance to agree on what the project is

C) resistance to cross-functional teams in organizations

D) divergent backgrounds of the team members

E) avoidance of revealing that each person has an opinion

D) divergent backgrounds of the team members

64
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Which of the following is the most accurate statement about virtual teams?

A) Although the were once a dream, it now appears that they will never deliver the benefits that many had hoped for.

B) Although they were once a dream, they are now being used by a small and select group of companies.

C) Although they still remain a dream, some companies plan to begin using them in the next five to ten years.

D) Although they still remain a dream, some companies are now experimenting with them.

E) Although the were once a dream, they are now spreading and are used by numerous companies.

Although the were once a dream, they are now spreading and are used by numerous companies.

65
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Which one of the following is not an advantage of virtual teams?

A) Around-the-clock work.

B) Reduced travel time.

C) Trust.

D) Larger talent pool.

E) Reduced cost.

C) Trust.

66
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Research on virtual teams has found that they reduced instances of

A) personality conflicts.

B) the formation of cliques.

C) stereotyping.

D) discrimination.

E) All of the above.

All of the above.

67
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A major disadvantage of virtual teams is that they increase

A) instances of discrimination.

B) stereotyping.

C) personality conflicts.

D) the formation of cliques.

E) miscommunication

miscommunication

68
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Work groups that bring people with different functional specialties together to better invent, design, or deliver a product or service are called

A) task forces.

B) self-managed teams.

C) virtual teams.

D) cross-functional teams.

E) formal teams.

cross-functional teams.

69
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What does Rubbermaid, Thermos, Ford, and Rolls-Royce have in common?

A) They have all had bad experiences with teams.

B) They have all used task forces.

C) They have all used cross-functional teams.

D) They have all used virtual teams.

E) They have all used self-managed teams.

They have all used cross-functional teams.

70
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Superordinate goals are an important factor that contribute to the effectiveness of

A) informal groups.

B) cohesive groups.

C) virtual teams.

D) cross-functional teams.

E) self-managed teams.

cross-functional teams.

71
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What is the most important function of norms?

A) to provide regularity and predictability of behaviour

B) to prevent social loafing

C) to prevent intersender role conflict

D) to increase group cohesiveness

E) to prevent interrole conflict

to provide regularity and predictability of behaviour

72
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Connie Gersick's research resulted in which of the following?

A) model of group cohesiveness

B) punctuated equilibrium model

C) model of factors that influence work group effectiveness

D) model of the role assumption process

E) typical stages of group development

punctuated equilibrium model

73
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What did Connie Gersick study to learn about the development of groups?

A) a team at Thermos that invented an ecologically friendly electric barbecue grill

B) teams at Rubbermaid that invent and design innovative household products

C) student groups doing class projects

D) sales teams at UPS that sell and deliver products and services

E) workers at Federal Express improving billing accuracy and reducing lost packages

student groups doing class projects

74
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You have been assigned a group project in your organizational behaviour course. You have six weeks to complete it. When will the midpoint transition occur?

A) at about four weeks

B) at about three weeks

C) at about one week

D) at about two weeks

E) at about five weeks

at about three weeks

75
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Diverse groups are least likely to perform better when

A) the task is creativity-demanding

B) the task involves problem solving

C) the task is routine

D) the task is cognitive

E) all of the above

the task is routine

76
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What kinds of roles develop in organizations?

A) formal roles and informal roles

B) designated roles and informal roles

C) designated roles and assigned roles

D) designated roles and emergent roles

E) assigned roles and informal roles

designated roles and emergent roles

77
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Selma and Sam have just started new jobs at the same company. After one month, Selma has become known by her coworkers as the new software engineer and Sam has become known as the office gossip. What kind of roles are these?

A) Selma's role is designated and Sam's role is emergent

B) Selma's role is designated and Sam's role is assigned

C) Selma's role is emergent and Sam's role is emergent

D) Selma's role is assigned and Sam's role is designated

E) Selma's role is designated and Sam's role is designated

Selma's role is designated and Sam's role is emergent

78
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What elements can lead to role ambiguity?

A) individual factors, group factors, organizational factors

B) organizational factors, individual factors, focal person

C) organizational factors, role senders, focal person

D) organizational factors, individual factors, role senders,

E) individual factors, role senders, focal person

organizational factors, role senders, focal person

79
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All of the following are frequent outcomes of role ambiguity except

A) dissatisfaction

B) reduced organizational commitment

C) absenteeism

D) job stress

E) intentions to quit

absenteeism

80
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Employees who straddle the boundary between the organization and its clients or customers are especially likely to encounter what form of role conflict?

A) person-role conflict

B) intrasender role conflict

C) intersender role conflict

D) interrole conflict

E) all of the above

intersender role conflict

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Whistle-blowing is often a signal of what form of role conflict?

A) intrasender role conflict

B) interrole conflict

C) intersender role conflict

D) person-role conflict

E) none of the above

person-role conflict

82
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The executive team at Levi Strauss & Co. wears examples of its own informal clothing line in order to

A) communicate dress norms

B) reduce status barriers

C) lower role ambiguity

D) lower role conflict

E) create group cohesiveness

reduce status barriers

83
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What are the two forms of social loafing?

A) the free rider effect and the sucker effect

B) the free loader effect and the sucker effect

C) the free rider effect and the solo effect

D) the free loader effect and the free rider effect

E) the free rider effect and the loafer effect

the free rider effect and the sucker effect

84
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All of the following are ways to counteract social loafing except

A) increase performance feedback

B) establish a superordinate goal

C) make sure that the work is interesting

D) make individual performance more visible

E) increase feelings of indispensability

establish a superordinate goal

85
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What do 3M, Federal Express, Kodak, and General Mills have in common?

A) they make extensive use of self-managed teams

B) they make extensive use of virtual teams

C) they make extensive use of cross-functional teams

D) they have strong group norms

E) they downplay status barriers

they make extensive use of self-managed teams

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All of the following are common areas of training for self-managed teams except for

A) social skills training

B) language skills training

C) business training

D) technical training

E) quality control training

quality control training

87
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Which motive for conformity most clearly involves effect dependence?

A) Internalization

B) Dissension

C) Identification

D) Compliance

E) Socialization

Compliance

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If I conform to my boss's wishes because of identification, I am conforming because

A) I might be able to get her to recommend me for promotion.

B) I absolutely believe, trust, and accept her directives.

C) I see myself as similar to her.

D) I'm afraid of her.

E) I believe the issues at hand are difficult and ambiguous.

I see myself as similar to her.

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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of compliance?

A) It is the simplest, most direct motive for conformity to group norms.

B) It primarily involves effect dependence.

C) It occurs because a member wishes to avoid punishment.

D) It occurs because a member wishes to acquire rewards.

E) It occurs because a member subscribes to the beliefs and values underlying the norm.

It occurs because a member subscribes to the beliefs and values underlying the norm.

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Which of the following best explains why most religious leaders conform to the norms of their religion?

A)

Identification.

B)

Internalization.

C)

Information dependence.

D)

Compliance.

E)

Effect dependence.

Internalization.

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What is the most likely motive for mere compliance to a request?

A)

You identify with the person making the request.

B)

You truly believe in the idea underlying the request.

C)

You like the person making the request.

D)

The request is easy and straightforward.

E)

You are afraid of the person making the request.

You are afraid of the person making the request.

92
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From first stage to last stage, which of the following sequences accurately portrays the stages of organizational socialization?

A)

Anticipatory socialization; encounter; role management

B)

Encounter; role management; anticipatory socialization

C)

Encounter; anticipatory socialization; role management

D)

Role management; anticipatory socialization; encounter

E)

Anticipatory socialization; role management; encounter

Anticipatory socialization; encounter; role management

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In his last year of college, even before he took a job with a conservative bank, Randall began wearing three piece suits regularly. To which stage of socialization does this example refer?

A)

Debasement

B)

Encounter

C)

Anticipatory socialization

D)

Identification

E)

Role management

Anticipatory socialization

94
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A psychological contract is

A)

conformity to a social norm prompted by the desire to acquire rewards.

B)

the shared beliefs, values and assumptions that exist in an organization.

C)

an explicit agreement between a worker and their employer which states the pay and benefits offered in exchange for work.

D)

the process by which people learn the norms required to function in an organization.

E)

the set of beliefs held by employees concerning the reciprocal obligations between them and their employer.

the set of beliefs held by employees concerning the reciprocal obligations between them and their employer.

95
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The first day on his new job, John's experienced workmates sent him to the equipment shed to ask the attendant for a ridiculously named, nonexistent tool. John came back very embarrassed, much to their amusement. This is not an example of

A)

a divestiture tactic.

B)

debasement.

C)

hazing.

D)

socialization.

E)

a realistic job preview.

a realistic job preview.

96
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Given the research findings, an organization would most likely introduce realistic job previews to

A)

increase the rate of job offer acceptance by applicants.

B)

reduce turnover.

C)

increase applicant expectations about the job.

D)

reduce the effects of socialization.

E)

reduce absenteeism.

reduce turnover.

97
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What socialization tactics are also known as debasement or hazing?

A)

investiture

B)

serial

C)

divestiture

D)

random

E)

disjunctive

divestiture

98
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At which stage of socialization is the new organizational member most likely to be information dependent and effect dependent on experienced organizational members?

A)

Encounter

B)

Internalization

C)

Anticipatory socialization

D)

Identification

E)

Role management

Encounter

99
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Even before he graduated from business school, Stan replaced his knapsack with an expensive leather briefcase. This is an example of

A)

a strong culture.

B)

a realistic job preview.

C)

collective socialization.

D)

debasement.

E)

anticipatory socialization.

anticipatory socialization.

100
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Alan acts in accordance with group norms because he believes that the norms are truly right. He ________ the norms.

A)

is identifying with

B)

is dissenting from

C)

has internalized

D)

is complying with

E)

is imitating

has internalized