Comprehensive Gynecology and Prenatal Care: Key Concepts and Procedures

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Last updated 4:38 PM on 7/30/26
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64 Terms

1
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Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with:

diseases of the reproductive organs of women

2
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The absence of cessation of the menstrual period is known as:

Amenorrhea

3
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Pain associated with the menstrual period is known as:

Dysmenorrhea

4
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Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as:

Menorrhagia

5
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A complete gynecologic examination consists of a:

breast and pelvic examination

6
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In what position is the patient placed for a breast examination?

Supine

7
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The American Cancer Society recommends that a woman perform a breast self examination?

monthly

8
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Which of the following position is used to perform a pelvic examination?

Lithotomy

9
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Why is it important that the patient be relaxed during the pelvic examination?

all of the above (for easier insertion of the vaginal speculum, make the examination easier for the patient, make it easier for the physician to perform the bimanual pelvic examination, reduce patient discomfort)

10
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Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?

all of the above (inspection of genitalia, vagina, and cervix, collection of a specimen for a Pap test, bimanual pelvic examination, rectal vaginal examination)

11
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The function of the vaginal speculum is to:

hold the walls of the vagina apart

12
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If a Pap test is being performed using the liquid based method, the vaginal speculum should be:

lubricated with a water based lubricant

13
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What is the purpose of the Pap test?

early detection of cancer of the cervix

14
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The patient should be instructed not to douche before having a Pap smear taken because douching:

Reduce the number of cells available for analysis

15
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A Pap smear should not be performed during a woman's menstrual period because blood cells:

obscure the specimen and interfere with an accurate reading

16
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When collecting a Pap smear, the ectocervical specimen is obtained using:

The S-shaped end of the cervical scraper

17
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All of the following are advantages of the liquid based Pap method except:

It is less expensive than the direct smear method

18
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All of the following are reasons for fixing Pap smear slides except to:

prevent the epithelial cells from dying

19
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The purpose of the maturation index is to:

provide the physician with an endocrine evaluation

20
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The Bethesda System for reporting the results of the Pap test includes:

A detailed description of any abnormal findings

21
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The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to:

determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries

22
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In preparation for a gynecologic examination, the patient should be instructed to:

all of the above (empty her bladder, if needed, undress completely, wear the examining gown with the opening in the front, breathe deeply, slowly, and evenly during the examination)

23
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All of the following are symptoms of trichomoniasis except:

abdominal pain

24
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The causative agent of trichomoniasis a:

Motile protozoan

25
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What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under the microscope?

the vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline

26
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The drug commonly employed to treat trichomoniasis:

Metronidazole (flagyl)

27
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Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidiasis?

a patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy

28
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If Candida albicans is present, what would be observed under the microscope?

yeast buds, spores, and hyphae

29
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Which of the following is a symptom of candidiasis?

thick, odorless, cottage cheese-like discharge

30
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Chlamydia often occurs in association with:

gonorrhea

31
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If left untreated, a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in:

infertility

32
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Gonorrhea is transmitted through:

sexual intercourse

33
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Symptoms of gonorrhea in a man include:

Urethritis cystitis profuse yellow purulent discharge dysuria

34
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Chlamydia and gonorrhea are usually diagnosed using:

DNA-probe test

35
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(PRENATAL CARE) what is the purpose of prenatal care?

all of the above (prevent disease, promote health, provide prenatal education, for the early detection of problems)

36
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In the absence of complications, the first prenatal visit should be scheduled after the patient:

misses her second menstrual period

37
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Which of the following is not included in the first prenatal visit?

determination of fetal presentation and position

38
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The purpose of the past medical history is to obtain information from the patient on:

conditions that may affect the health of the mother or fetus

39
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The purpose of the present pregnancy history is to:

All of the above (establish a baseline for the present health status of the prenatal patient, record medications being taken by the patient, determine if the patient has experienced any of the early signs of pregnancy, calculate the estimated due date)

40
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What is the LMP?

first day of the last menstrual period

41
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What is the estimated due date of a patient whose last menstrual period was September 5, 2009?

June 12, 2010

42
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All of the following are warning signs of pregnancy except:

heartburn

43
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The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to:

all of the above (record weight, BP, and urine testing results, determine the presence of any concerns or problems, determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy, record the fetal heart tones and fundal height)

44
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Which of the following is performed during the initial prenatal examination?

all of the above (measurement of vital signs, physical examination, breast examination, pelvic examination)

45
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Which of the following urine tests is performed at each return prenatal visit?

glucose and protein

46
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The purpose of measuring fundal height is to:

Assess whether or not fetal growth is progressing normally

47
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Doppler fetal pulse detector?

the fetal heart tone can be first detected between 4 and 6 weeks of gestation

48
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What is the normal range for the fetal pulse rate?

120 to 160 BPM

49
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A vaginal examination is usually performed as the patient nears term. All of the following are reasons for performing this examination except:

determine when the patient will go into labor

50
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When the pregnant woman tested for group B streptococcus?

35 to 37 weeks

51
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Obstetric ultrasound scanning is used to:

All of the above (detect ectopic pregnancy, determine gestational age, detect the presence of multiple fetuses, determine the position of the placenta)

52
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Amniocentesis can be used to:

all of the above (diagnose certain genetically transmitted conditions, assess fetal lung maturity, determine the gender of the fetus, detect fetal distress)

53
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Which of the following conditions may warrant fetal heart rate monitoring?

all of the above (decreased fetal activity, fetal growth that is not progressing well, overdue baby, gestational diabetes mellitus)

54
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What term describes the period of time in which the body systems are returning to their prepregnant state?

puerperium

55
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Which of the following does not need to be reported to the physician?

the lochia changes to yellowish white after having been red

56
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All of the following are performed during the 6 week postpartum visit except:

Pap test

57
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CBC (Complete blood count)

Used as a basic screening test to assess the patient's state of health: includes WBC count, RBC count, hematocrit, hemoglobin, platelet count, and differential WBC count)

58
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Glucose challenge test

to screen individuals for gestational diabetes mellitus

59
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Gonorrhea test

to detect the presence of an organism that, if left untreated could infect the infant's eyes at birth, resulting in ophthalmia neonatorum)

60
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Hemoglobin

to detect the presence of anemia

61
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Rh antibody titer

to detect the presence of the amount of circulating Rh antibodies

62
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Rh factor and ABO blood type

to anticipate any ABO or Rh incompatibilities

63
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Rubella antibody titer

to assess the antibody level present against rubella

64
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VDRL

to detect the presence of syphilis