Human Anatomy Final Exam

Name the cell types of the lymphatic system

Natural Killer Cells (NK cells) T cells, B cells, and monocytes (macrophages, neutrophils, and mast cells)

Natural Killer Cells function

Destroy infected/tumor cells

T cells function

Cell-mediated immunity

B cells function

responsible for producing antibodies

Monocytes

Differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells, involved in immune response.

Macrophages

Large phagocytic cells that ingest and destroy pathogens, and present antigens to T cells, thus playing a key role in the immune response.

Neutrophils

A type of white blood cell that is the first responder to sites of infection. They engulf and destroy bacteria and fungi through phagocytosis.

Mast cells

Type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in allergic reactions and releases histamine and other chemicals during inflammatory responses.

Types of tonsils

Pharyngeal tonsils, Tubul tonsils, Palatine tonsils, and Lingual tonsils.

Where are pharyngeal tonsils found?

Single, in the rood of the nasopharynx, above the soft palate.

Where are tubal tonsils found?

Paired, at the openings of the Eustachian tubes in the nasopharynx.

Where are the palatine tonsils found?

Paired, located on either side of the oropharynx (back of throat)

Where are lingual tonsils found?

Single, located at the base of the tongue.

Functions of the lymphatic tonsils

to protect against pathogens and contribute to immune response in the body.

Peyer’s paths (lymphatic nodules)

are small masses of lymphatic tissue found in the ileum of the small intestine, playing a role in immune surveillance and response.

Thymus Anatomy

a lymphoid organ located in the upper chest, between the lungs and consists of two lobes, each with a central medulla and an outer cortex, surrounded by a capsule

Thymus Function

Plays a crucial role in the development of T cells for the immune system. Produces hormones that regulate immune cell development

Red Bone Marrow Anatomy

a soft, spongy tissue found primarily in the cavities of long bones and the interior of flat bones, such as the pelvis and sternum.

Red Bone Marrow Function

is essential for hematopoiesis, producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

Spleen Anatomy

a fist-sized organ located in the upper left part of the abdomen, near the stomach, contains white pulp and red pulp.

Spleen Function

is involved in filtering blood, recycling iron, and supporting the immune system by producing lymphocytes.

White Pulp

is the portion of the spleen that contains lymphoid tissue, rich in lymphocytes, and plays a key role in immune responses.

Red Pulp

is the area of the spleen that filters and removes old or damaged red blood cells, stores platelets, and serves as a reservoir for blood.

Lymph Nodes Anatomy

are small, bean-shaped structures distributed throughout the body (neck, axilla, groin, etc)

Lymph Nodes Function

are essential for filtering lymph fluid, trapping pathogens, and facilitating immune responses.

Lymphatic Vessels Anatomy

are a network of thin-walled vessels that carry lymph fluid throughout the body, connecting lymph nodes and the lymphatic system.

Drainage Regions

includes the Lymphatic capillaries, right lymphatic duct and thoracic duct. Refers to areas in the body where lymphatic fluid is drained into specific lymph nodes for filtration and immune surveillance.

Where do lymphatic capillaries drain to

lymph nodes and larger lymphatic vessels.

Where do right lymphatic ducts drain to

the right subclavian vein, receiving lymph from the right upper body.

Thoracic duct drains to where?

the left subclavian vein, collecting lymph from the left side of the body and lower body.

Overall function of lymphatic vessels

Fluid balance, immune surveillance, nutrient transport, waste removal, and absorption of dietary fats.

The role of lymph nodes in metastatic cancer

is to filter lymphatic fluid and trap cancer cells, preventing their spread throughout the body. They help in immune response by activating lymphocytes and producing antibodies.

The role of lymphatics in elephantiasis

is to facilitate the movement of lymph fluid, which is impaired in elephantiasis,

specific immunity

also known as adaptive immunity, is a type of immune response that is tailored to specific pathogens or antigens

non-specific immunity

is an innate immune response that provides immediate, generalized defense against a wide range of pathogens without targeting specific invaders. It includes barriers like skin, phagocytic cells, and the inflammatory response.

Symptoms of lymphatic disorders

can include swelling, pain, infections, and skin changes due to fluid accumulation and impaired lymphatic flow.

Lymphedema

is a condition characterized by swelling due to an accumulation of lymph fluid, often caused by a blockage in the lymphatic system.

Lymphadenopathy

refers to the enlargement of lymph nodes due to infection, autoimmune diseases, or malignancies, often indicating an underlying health issue.

Lymphadenitis

is the inflammation of lymph nodes, usually due to an infection, causing swelling and tenderness.

Lymphoma

is a type of cancer that originates in lymphocytes, the cells of the immune system, and can lead to enlarged lymph nodes and other symptoms.

Tonsillitis

is the inflammation of the tonsils, often caused by a viral or bacterial infection, leading to sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and swollen lymph nodes.

Lymphangitis

is the inflammation of the lymphatic vessels, typically due to infection, resulting in redness, swelling, and pain along the affected vessels.

Distention (stretching) of the stomach is possible because of the presence of folds known as
A. rugae

B. villi
C. microvilli
D. transitional epithelium

A. rugae

Most enzymes involved in protein digestion are
A. secreted by the pancreas
B. activated by HCl
C. present in the stomach
D. secreted in an inactive form
E. both B and D are correct

E. both B and D are correct

Which of the following is not a function of saliva
A. keeps the mouth moist
B. helps clean the teeth
C. help dissolve food
D. all are functions of saliva

D. all are functions of saliva

The terminal (end) region of the small intestine is the
A. ileum
B. cecum
C. duodenum
D. jejunum
E. colon

A. ileum

________ A viral disease of the parotid glands that may, in advanced stages, involve
the pancreas and testes.
A. nephritis
B. mumps
C. chicken pox
D. rheumatoid arthritis
E. halitosis

B. mumps

The gastrointestinal tract (G.I.) is _______ long
A. 15 ft.
B. 28 inches
C. 30ft
D. 10 in.
E. 25 ft.

C. 30ft

Muscle involved in “backflow” of acid from the stomach into the esophagus and is
the cause of heartburn.
A. pyloric sphincter
B. “cardiac” sphincter( this is actually a misnomer)
C. sphenoid masseter
D. hard palate
E. skeletal sphincter

B. "cardiac" sphincter (misnomer)

The longest region of the digestive tract, measuring about 12 ft
A. large intestine
B. small intestine
C. pharynx (“throat”)
D. colon

B. small intestine

Emulsification (ability to dissolve) of fats is made possible by __________ which empties into
the duodenum
A. intestinal mucosa
B. the falciform ligament
C. acid chyme
D. bile
E. pepsinogen

D. bile

The first organ to receive the blood-borne products of digestion
A. liver
B. pancreas
C. heart
D. brain
E. stomach

A. liver

Which of the following is likely to be involved in the digestion of an 8 ounce grilled pork chop?
A. bile
B. trypsin
C. amylase
D. nuclease

B. trypsin

Nutrients are absorbed in the small intestine by which of the following?
A. Lipids
B. amino acids
C. Lacteals
D. Ureters

C. Lacteals

The enzymes of saliva and pancreatic juice that breakdown starch are called _____.
A. amylases.
B. peptidases.
C. lipases.
D. lysozymes.
E. upsadaisies.

A. amylases.

The partially digested fluid that passes from the stomach into the small intestine is
A. bile.
B. mucus.
C. saliva.
D. feces.
E. chyme

E. chyme

Which type of cell in the stomach secretes pepsinogen, which leads to the breakdown of
proteins to small dipeptides?
A. chief cell
B. parietal cell
C. goblet cell
D. enteroendocrine cell
E. mucous cell

A. chief cell

What is a function of parietal cells in the stomach?
A. They produce a secretion that breaks down lipids.
B. They produce a secretion that initiates breakdown of proteins.
C. They produce intrinsic factor.
D. They produce mucus.
E. They produce a secretion that begins to break down starch

C. They produce intrinsic factor.

What structure may become inflamed and infected, has no true digestive function,
and may burst resulting in peritonitis?
A. Duodenum
B. pharyngeal constrictors
C. Cecum
D. Appendix
E. duodenal papilla

D. Appendix

Which of the following is a function of the stomach?
A. It absorbs most of the nutrients in food.
B. It churns food into a paste by mechanical means.
C. It stores food in the form of fat.
D. Most chemical digestion takes place in the stomach.
E. It digests lipids

B. It churns food into a paste by mechanical means.

Tissue that makes up most of the tooth
A. dentin
B. cementum
C. alveoli
D. calcium
E. pulp

A. dentin

Substance that covers the crown of the teeth
A. enamel
B. dentin
C. mold
D. zymogen
E. none of the above

A. enamel

Diarrhea occurs if the large intestine
A. does not absorb enough water
B. is too short in an individual
C. villi are infected
D. absorbs too much water
E. gastric cells are infected

A. does not absorb enough water

Stores bile
A. liver
B. spleen
C. pancreas
D. gall bladder
E. both B and C are correct

D. gall bladder

Which of the following is about 3-4 cm in females and approximately 20 cm in males?
A.ureter
B. urethra
C. glomerulus
D.collecting duct

B. urethra

The outer region of the kidney
A. cortex
B. medulla
C. calyx

D. papilla

A. cortex

Takes urine directly to the bladder
A. glomerulus
B. trigone
C. ureters
D. urethra
E. none of the above

C. ureters

What takes urine from the bladder to the outside of the body?
A. urethra
B. transitional tissue
C. ureters
D. nephron

A. urethra

All are parts of the nephron except
A. proximal tubule
B. glomerular capsule
C. distal tubule
D. nephron loop
E. arcuate vein

E. arcuate vein

Blood vessel that takes blood from the kidneys
A. nephron loop
B. renal pyramid
C. renal vein
D. thoracic duct
E. brush border villi

C. renal vein

Fluid passed from the blood to the nephron contains wastes and chemicals useful to the body.
This process is called
A. water conservation
B. tubular secretion
C. trigone
D. distal convoluted tubules
E. glomerular filtration

E. glomerular filtration

Cluster of capillaries in the kidney where filtration occurs
A. glomerulus
B. trigone
C. urethra
D. urinary bladder
E. calyx

A. glomerulus

The space where a tooth brush rests, while brushing the outer surface of the teeth
A. lingual frenulum
B. vestibule (See diagram)
C. hard palate
D. cementum

B. vestibule (See diagram)

Which of the following papilla has fewer taste buds, but are mostly responsible for detection of
taste?
A. filiform
B. fusiform
C. vallate (see diagram)
D. uvula

A. filiform

Which of the following is a periodontal tissue?
A. gingiva
B. enamel
C. pulp
D. dentine

A. gingiva

A tooth is held in place by this type of joint
A. synarthrosis
B. synostosis
C. synovial
D. gomphoses
E. dendritic cells

D. gomphoses

There are______ deciduous or milk teeth
A. 20
B. 32
C. 25
D. 12

A. 20

The only “necessary function of the stomach
A. Breakdown food
B. Secreted digestive enzymes
C. Produce intrinsic factor

D. Hold food

C. Produce intrinsic factor

Which of the following is most likely used in digestion of a cheeseburger?
Lipase or Bile

Both.

Bile emulsifies fats in the small intestine and lipase breaks down those fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

Stomach ulcers is caused by the high level of acid that is found in the stomach
A. True B. False
Explain

False. Stomach ulcers are not primarily caused by a high level of acid in the stomach. The most common causes are infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria and the overuse of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs. While high levels of acid can contribute to ulcer formation, they are not the main cause.

How are milk teeth replaced by permanent teeth?

Milk teeth are gradually replaced by permanent teeth through a process called tooth exfoliation, where the roots of the milk teeth dissolve, allowing the permanent teeth to emerge.

A root canal is

a narrow area in the lower part of the root of a tooth. Contains blood vessels, nerves, and a type of connective tissue known as pulp

Pulp

The innermost part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves, playing a critical role in tooth health.

Root canal surgery is required…

if the tooth nerve and pulp becomes infected due to deep decay, a crack or chip in the tooth, or repeated dental procedures on a tooth.

Root canal surgical procedure

the nerve and pulp are removed. Pulp is replaced by inert material, and the tooth is cleaned and sealed.

What is Gerd?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease, a digestive condition where stomach acid frequently flows back into the esophagus, causing irritation.

How is GERD caused?

It is caused by a weakened lower esophageal sphincter, obesity, pregnancy, or certain foods and medications that relax the sphincter.

What is hepatitis?

A liver inflammation often it can lead to various symptoms including jaundice, fatigue, and abdominal pain.

How is hepatitis caused?

It is caused by viral infections, excessive alcohol consumption, certain medications, or autoimmune disorders that attack the liver.

1) Which of the following is the correct pathway of sperm cells from their formation to
ejaculation?
A) Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, urethra, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens
B) Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, urethra
C) Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, rete testis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
D) Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
E) Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra, ductus deferens

D) Seminiferous tubule, rete testis, epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra

Which cells produce testosterone?

A) Seminiferous cells
B) Interstitial endocrine cells
C) Cumulus cells
D) Sustentacular cells
E) Spermatogonia

B) Interstitial endocrine cells

Which gland produces most of the semen?
A) The prostate
B) The bulbourethral gland
C) The vestibular gland
D) The seminal vesicle
E) The areolar gland

D) The seminal vesicle

When it is cold, the ________ contracts and draws the testes closer to the body to keep them
warm.
A) cremaster muscle
B) pampiniform plexus
C) corpus spongiosum
D) perineum
E) corpus cavernosum

A) cremaster muscle

Which of the following is not an adaptation for keeping the testes cool?
A) Descent of the testes to the scrotum
B) Pampiniform plexus
C) Cremaster muscle
D) The testicular artery
E) The dartos muscle

D) The testicular artery

What would one consequence be if a man suffers an injury to his cremaster?
A) Sterility
B) An undescended testis
C) A smooth scrotal sac
D) Erectile dysfunction

A) Sterility

Which structure caps the head of a mature sperm and enables the sperm to penetrate an egg?
A) Axoneme
B) Acrosome
C) Nucleus
D) Mitochondria
E) Flagellum

B) Acrosome

Why would an enlarged prostate interfere with urination?
A) It inhibits urine production.
B) It develops calcified deposits that block the urethra.
C) It produces thicker prostatic secretions that block the urethra.

D) It inhibits the micturition reflex.
E) It compresses the urethra

E) It compresses the urethra

The golf-ball sized structure found inferior to the urinary bladder, and surrounding the most
proximal portion of the urethra, is called the ________.
A) seminal vesicle
B) urethra
C) bulbourethral gland
D) prostate
E) ejaculatory duct

D) prostate

The deep region of the penis, surrounding the urethra that fills with blood during an erection
is known as the ________.
A) epididymis
B) corpus spongiosum
C) corpus cavernosum
D) scrotum
E) ductus (vas) deferens

B) corpus spongiosum

If, after ovulation, the corpus luteum fails to form, which of the following could potentially
occur?
A) Miscarriage
B) Ectopic pregnancy
C) Placenta previa
D) Maternal twins

A) Miscarriage