Introduction to Equine Medicine

Gait

a particular way of going, either natural or acquired, which is characterized by a distinctive rhythmic movement of the feet and legs

walk, trot, canter, gallop

Give the four natural gaits we would see in the wild state

Walk

a 4-beat gait, meaning each foot leaves and strikes the ground at different times

a natural gait for all breeds

3 1/2 - 5 mph

what is the average speed of walk

Walk

a natural gait having a foot sequence of:

left hind - first beat

left front - second beat

right hind - third beat

right front - fourth beat

Trot

a natural gait with one diagonal pair of legs are raised before other pair touches ground

7 - 10 mph

average speed of trot

10 - 30 mph

extended speed of trot

trot

a dominant genetic trait over pacing

Trot

a natural gait having a foot sequence of:

left front/right hind (left diagonal) - 1st beat

left hind/right front (right diagonal) - 2nd beat

Trot

it is a fast, symmetrical, two-beat diagonal gait. At any moment there are either 2 or 0 feet on the ground

canter

a 3-beat natural gait, defined as a collected or restrained gallop

6 - 10 mph

average speed of canter

Canter

a fast, asymmetrical, three-beat gait and is characterized by a rocking motion with a series of bounces and a moment of suspension. At any moment there are either 0,1,2, or 3 feet on the ground

right lead

what leg sequence of canter is this: (right/left lead)

left hind - 1st beat

right hind + left front - 2nd beat

right front - 3rd beat

left lead

what leg sequence of canter is this: (right/left lead)

right hind - 1st beat

left hind + right front - 2nd beat

left front - 3rd beat

Gallop

a 4-beat natural gait and is considered as the fastest gait of horse

12 - 20 mph

average speed of gallop

Gallop

an asymmetric, 4-beat gait (fastest gait) and is characterized by four distinct beats, one foot at a time, followed by a suspension. At any moment either 0, 1, or 2 feet on the ground

right lead

What leg sequence of gallop is this? (left/right lead)

left hind - 1st beat

right hind - 2nd beat

left front - 3rd beat

right front - 4th beat

Left lead

What leg sequence of gallop is this? (left/right lead)

right hind - 1st beat

left hind - 2nd beat

right front - 3rd beat

left front - 4th beat

colic

refers to abdominal pain. there are numerous causes and symptoms vary from mild to severe

choke

a condition of esophagus blockage, typically caused by food

laminitis

inflammation of the foot laminae that attaches the coffin bone to the hoof wall. Also termed "founder"

lameness

refers to a horse's change in gait typically in relation to pain within a limb and possibly caused by mechanical restriction on movement.

degenerative joint disease (DJD)

also known as osteoarthritis, and is the most typical form of horse arthritis. Fetlocks, hocks, and knees are commonly affected. Caused by chronic repetitive motion that ends in structural joint damage and inflammation

hoof abscess

a pus-filled, wall-off lesion located within the hoof. It is caused by bacteria being trapped in the hoof and may cause sudden lameness and severe pain

gastric ulcers

sores that happen in the horse's stomach lining

stress

inadequate forage amounts

feed deprivation

high grain diets

stall confinement

hauling

NSAIDs (phenylbutazone, flunixin meglumine, ketoprofen)

what are the causes of gastric ulcers

parasite

any organisms that depends on another organism (host) for its continued existence, frequently to the host's detrimental

Cushing's disease

a progressive chronic condition of the intermediate pituitary gland of older horses. Frequently have other health challenges like chronic infection, laminitis, and pseudo lactation

Equine Metabolic Syndrome (EMS)

an endocrine condition that can cause insulin dysregulation, laminitis, localized fat deposits, and/or obesity

Heaves

an allergic respiratory condition depicted by respiratory difficulty, chronic coughing, and nasal drainage

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

emphysema

broken wind

recurrent airway obstruction

what are the other names for heaves

Strangles

extremely contagious bacterial disease characterized by pharyngeal mucous membrane inflammation, abscess formation, swelling, and inflammation in the association lymph nodes. Also known as distemper

Streptococcus equi

causative agent of Strangles (equine distemper)

sweet itch

also known as insect bite hypersensitivity or equine insect hypersensitivity, is an extreme reaction to insect bite saliva

teeth floating

refers to rasping or filling to remove the sharp edges of a horse's teeth

kissing spine

occurs at the top of the vertebrae (dorsal spinous processes) when two or more bony projections overlap or touch.

kissing spine

This condition is one of the most frequent causes of back pain in equines

Bone Spavin

degenerative arthritis of the lower hock joints and the most frequent origin of equine hind limb lameness

Navicular disease

lameness caused by navicular bone damage and one of the most frequent causes of equine chronic forelimb lameness

Tendonitis

inflammation of a tendon muscle attachment or tendon

Dental exam

This exam should be performed at least yearly where the veterinarian will look at and palpate the teeth and check the external and internal structures of the horse's head, including the cheeks, lips, lymph nodes, gums, palate, and tongue.

Coggins test

test used to detect antibodies to the equine infectious anemia (EIA) virus

Dewormer

a medication given to horses to kill or prevent internal parasite development. Also known as an anthelmintic

Vaccines

administered to horses to allow their immune system to make antibodies to mitigate specific diseases.

Radiograph

an X ray film used to view the body's internal structures

Ultrasound

noninvasive diagnostic method to view the body's internal structures via sound (echo) reflections

Prepurchase exam

an exam done by equine veterinarian on behalf of the prospective buyer to assess a horse's athletic soundness and general health

Unsoundness

Any defect that affects serviceability

Blemish

a defect that detracts from appearance but does not impair serviceability

Blindness

cloudiness of the cornea or complete change of color to white

Vitamin B deficiency

Pale blue, watery eyes may indicate periodic ophthalmia (moon blindness), which is due in part to a what deficiency?

Vitamin A deficiency

watery eyes may appear in what deficiency?

Poll evil

acquired unsoundness resulting from a bruise or persistent irritation in the region of the poll

Brucella abortus

causative agent of poll evil

Parrot mouth

a rather common hereditary defect where the lower jaw is too short and the upper and lower incisor teeth do not meet properly

Monkey mouth or undershot jaw

the opposite and is less common than parrot mouth

Fistula

inflammation of the withers that may be present on one or both sides of the withers

Sweeney

an atrophy or disease in the size of a muscle or group of muscles and is most common to the shoulder muscles extending from the withers downward about two-thirds of the distance to the point of the shoulder

Light horses

Sweeny is not very common to ____________

Knocked-down hip

a fracture of the external angle of the hip bone (ilium) results in a lowering of the point of the hip. Usefulness is seldom impaired, but appearance is greatly affected

- Hurrying through narrow doors,

- crowding in trailers

- falling

- injury from other causes

what are the causes of knocked-down hip

Scars

may appear on any part of the body and attention is usually directed to them because of the presence of white hairs

Hernias

may appear on any portion of the abdomen, but are more common near the umbilicus

True

True or False: Any permanent abnormality in the respiration process is a serious unsoundness

Roaring (whistling)

a paralysis or partial paralysis of the nerves that control the muscles of the vocal cords may result in a _____ sound when air is inhaled into the lungs

False. Roaring may be limited to one nostril and can be determined by plugging each nostril atternately

True or False: Roaring is not limited to one nostril and can be determined by plugging both nostrils

Heaving

caused by a loss of elasticity in the lungs, resulting from a breakdown of the walls of a portion of the air cells. This condition is characterized by an apparent extra contraction of the flank muscles during expiration.

- dusty hay and/or atmosphere

- severe exertion of horses out of condition

- respiratory infection

common causes of heaving

True

True or False:

The goal of vaccination is to develop and maintain both individual and herd immunity against infectious diseases

- Rabies

- Influeza

- Tetanus

- Equine herpesvirus 1 and 4

- Botulism

- Equine ehrlichiosis (Potomac Horse Fever)

- West Nile Virus

- Equine viral arteritis

- Rotavirus

- Streptococcus equi (Strangles)

What are the common commercial vaccines available for equine? (RITE BEWERS)

- animal's age

- use

- level of exposure

what are the basis for the formulation of vaccination programs?

Broodmare vaccination

important to provide active immunity for the mare and passive immunity for the foal via transfer of colostral antibodies

IgG levels >800 mg/dL

adequate antibody level absorbed of foals born to vaccinated mares

IgG levels

antibody levels of foals born to unavaccinated mares

- equine herpesvirus 1 and 4

- tetanus

- eastern and western equine encephalomyelitis

foals with failure of passive antibody transfer and/or foals born to unvaccinated mares can receive their initial vaccination for: (ETE)

3 - 4 months of age

at what age the initial dose of EHV 1 and 4, tetanus, and Easter and Western Equine Encephalomyelitis vaccines should be given?

10 - 12 months of age

at what age the last dose of EHV 1 and 4, tetanus, and Easter and Western Equine Encephalomyelitis vaccines should be given?

3 - 4 months of age

foals can receive their first dose of rabies vaccine at what age?

12 months

booster shot of rabies vaccine is given at what age of the horse?

6 months of age

Influenza vaccination can be started at what age of the foal?

3 - 5 months of age

foals born to mares that have never been exposed to or vaccinated against West Nile virus can receive their first vaccination at what age?