ANSC 230 Exam 3 MC Textbook

The front- and hindlimbs and their respective shoulder and pelvic girdles are part of the

a. axial skeleton

b. appendicular skeleton

appendicular skeleton

Intervertebral disks between contiguous vertebrae:

a. are solid hyaline cartilage

b. are present only between lumbar vertebrae

c. provide compression-resisting cushions and permit limited movement

d. do not allow for movement

provide compression-resisting cushions and permit limited movement

The axial skeleton is composed of the:

a. skull and vertebrae

b. skull, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum

c. skull, vertebrae, and pectoral and pelvic girdles

d. ribs, sternum and pectoral and pelvic girdles

skull, vertebrae, ribs, and sternum

Beginning cranially and extending caudally, the vertebral groups are:

a. cervical, sacra, thoracis, lumbar, caudal

b. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, sacral, caudal

c. thoracic, lumbar, sacral, cervical, caudal

d. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, caudal

The os coxae:

a. is a part of the pectoral girdle

b. unites dorsally with its opposite bone, forming a symphysis without articulation

c. unites ventrally with its opposite bone at the symphysis pelvis

d. is another name for the bovine species

unites ventrally with its opposite bone at the symphysis pelvis

In cattle, a prominent protuberance known as the hook bone is the:

a. tuber sacrale

b. tuber ischiadicum

c. tuber coxae

d. simply tuber

tuber coxae

Proceeding distally from the cannon bone in the horse, the phalangeal articulations are referred to as:

a. pastern, fetlock, coffin

b. fetlock, pastern, coffin

c. coffin, pastern, fetlock

d. pastern, coffin, fetlock

fetlock, pastern, coffin

Sesamoid bones:

a. articulate with other bones and thereby reduce friction by their attachment with ligaments directed for more distal locations

b. are firmly attached to other bones without visible movement

c. are the same as splint bones

d. got their name from sesame street

articulate with other bones and thereby reduce friction by their attachment with ligaments directed for more distal locations

The cylindrical shaft of a long bone is known as the:

a. epiphysis

b. metaphysis

c. diaphysis

diaphysis

The principal location of hematopoiesis (blood cell production) is the:

a. joint capsule

b. medullary cavity of the diaphysis

c. epiphyseal plate

d. lacunae

medullary cavity of the diaphysis

The outer surface of bones (with the exception of joint surfaces) is covered by:

a. endosteum

b. hyaline cartilage

c. periosteum

d. osteoblasts

periosteum

Osteoblasts:

a. are the hematopoietic cells of bone

b. synthesize and secrete the organic substance of bones

c. are bone-dissolving cells

d. are the mature cells of bone

synthesize and secrete the organic substance of bone

The interstitial fluid of osteocytes:

a. is contained within lacunae and canaliculae

b. diffuses from blood vessels within Haversian canals

c. serves osteocytes in all concentric lamellae, even the outermost

d. described in a, b, and c above

is described in a, b, and c, above

Stimulation of osteoprogenitor cells leads directly to:

a. osteoclasts

b. osteocytes

c. osteoblasts

d. chondrocytes

osteoblasts

Production of osteoid and its subsequent calcification is accomplished by:

a. osteoclasts

b. osteocytes

c. osteoblasts

d. chondrocytes

osteoblasts

Bone cells that represent transformed osteoblasts, communicate with each other by gap junctions in canaliculae, and maintain bone matrix are:

a. osteoprogenitor cells

b. osteoblasts

c. osteoclasts

d. osteocytes

osteocytes

Osteoclasts:

a. are transformed osteocytes

b. are large bone-resorbing cells considered to be members of the diffuse mononuclear phagocytic system

c. are active in producing bone matrix

are large bone-resorbing cells considered to be membrers of the diffuse mononuclear phagocytic system

Calcium and phosphorus:

a. are the major constituents of the mineral phase of bone and exist in a ratio of 2:1 (calcium:phosphorus)

b. represent the organic matter of bone

c. are never recovered from bone once they are deposited in the mineral phase

are the major constituents of the mineral phase of bone and exist in a ratio of 2:1

Haversian systems:

a. are the units of structure and compact bone.

b. develop within tunnels formed in the zone of calcified matrix

c. develop when capillaries invade the tunnels formed by nests of dead chondrocytes

d. are represented by a, b, and c

are represented by a, b, and c

The os penis, os cordis, and pathologic bone deposits represent:

a. endochondral bone formation

b. intramembranous bone formation

c. heteroplastic bone formation

heteroplastic bone formation

Most long bones are developed:

a. without the intervention of cartilage

b. by endochondral ossification

c. by heteroplastic ossification

by endochondral ossification

the epiphyseal plate:

a. is a cartilage plate between the epiphysis and diaphysis

b. has a profuse blood supply

c. has no distinguishable zones

d. is located on only one end of a long bone

is a cartilage plate between the epiphysis and diaphysis

Bone forms:

a. in both directions from the epiphyseal plate

b. towards the diaphysis, with a lifting effect on the epiphyseal plate

c. because the chondrocytes never die

d. because the zone of reserve cartilage dies

toward the diaphysis, with a lifting effect on the epiphyseal plate

Remodeling of bone:

a. occurs during growth and in response to stress placed on bone

b. does not occur (once formed, not removed)

c. does not involve osteoclastic activity

occurs during growth and in response to stress placed on bone

A prerequisite for fracture repair is:

a. the alleviation of pain

b. perfect realignment

c. reestablishment of a blood supply

d. splinting

reestablishment of a blood supply

Callus formation after bone fracture:

a. is the most common type of bone repair

b. is located on the external surface only

c. whether on the internal or external surface, comes from the osteoblasts

d. does not revert to compact bone and subsequent remodeling

is the most common type of bone repair

The synovial membrane:

a. covers the bearing surface (articular cartilage) of a joint

b. is the outer fibrous layer of a joint capsule that contributes to the stability of the joint

c. is the lining inner surface of a joint capsule that contains synoviocytes which secrete synovial fluid

is the lining inner surface of a joint capsule that contains synoviocytes, which secrete synovial fluid

The chief function(s) of synovial fluid is(are):

a. to serve as an adhesive to hold bones together at a joint

b. to provide for a popping noise when bones are pulled apart

c. to provide for joint lubrication and nourishment of the articular cartilage

to provide for joint lubrication and nourishment of the articular cartilage

Synovial fluid:

a. viscosity is almost entirely attributable to hyaluronic acid

b. color is always yellow

c. viscosity is the same in all joints

d. contains numerous cells

viscosity is almost entirely attributable to hyaluronic acid

Adult articular cartilage is:

a. supplied with nerves and blood vessels.

b. smooth but very rigid

c. a resilient and elastic tissue that becomes thinner when compressed and regains original thickness when pressure is released

a resilient and elastic tissue that becomes thinner when compressed and regains original thickness when pressure is released

Nutrition of adult articular cartilage:

a. is not needed

b. is provided by synovial fluid and fluid that diffuses from capillaries in the joint capsule

c. is provided from capillaries that infiltrate its substance

is provided by synovial fluid and fluid that diffuses from capillaries in the hoint capsule

Which one of the following items best describes lubrication of synovial joints?

a. they do not need it because they are smooth

b. aqueous humor

c. hyaluronic acid and lubricin, which are secreted by the synovial membrane

d. secretions of the choroid plexus

hyaluronic acid and lubricin, which are secreted by the synovial membrane

Nerve fibers for pain:

a. are located in articular cartilage

b. are located in the joint capsule

c. do not exist in association with synovial joints

are located in the joint capsule

Muscle fibers that contract more slowly and fatigue less readily are:

a. red fibers

b. white fibers

red fibers

Cardiac-muscle cells have separations between adjacent cells known as intercalated disks. Their function is to:

a. regenerate new cells

b. provide a location for neuromuscular junctions

c. provide for low electrical resistance and thus facilitate depolarization from one cell to the next

d. release Ca2+ for initiation of muscle contraction

provide for low electrical resistance and thus facilitate depolarization from one cell to the next

The autonomic nervous system regulates the activity of:

a. cardiac muscle only

b. skeletal muscle only

c. smooth muscle only

d. both cardiac and smooth muscle

both cardiac and smooth muscle

A pelvic delivery of an unusually large calf has caused a cow to be down and unable to bring her hind legs together. Obturator nerve paralysis is suspected and the affected muscles are classified as:

a. abductors

b. adductors

c. extensors

d. flexors

adductors

Muscles that pull a limb toward the median plane are:

a. abductors

b. adductors

c. flexors

d. extensors

adductors

The skeletal-muscle harness component most intimately associated with the sarcolemma is the:

a. endomysium

b. perimysium

c. epimysium

endomysium

The part of the skeletal-muscle harness that is continuous with a tendon or an aponeurosis is the:

a. perimysium

b. epimysium

c. endomysium

d. tug

epimysium

In skeletal-muscle fibers, the sarcomeres of a myofibril are in alignment with the sarcomeres of all the other myofibrils:

a. true

b. false

true

Which one of the following is the smallest component of a skeletal muscle?

a. sarcomere

b. myosin

c. myofibril

d. muscle fiber

myosin

The sarcotubular system:

a. is located within muscle fibers but outside of the myofibrils

b. is a system within each of the myofibrils

c. has no direct communication (openings) with extracellular fluid

d. consists of a nerve fiber and the muscle fibers that it innervates

is located within muscle fibers but outside of the myofibrils

Conduction of depolarization from the surface of a muscle fiber to its inner aspects is accomplished by the:

a. neuromuscular junction

b. actin filaments

c. endomysium

d. sarcotubular system

sarcotubular system

The myofilament of skeletal muscle that is attached to the Z line is:

a. actin

b. myosin

c. troponin

d. tropomyosin

actin

For skeletal muscle, the neuromuscular junction:

a. is located on the surface at the mid-point of the muscle fiber (one for each muscle fiber)

b. releases acetylcholine when the nerve is stimulated

c. release of chemical is faciliatated by extracellular Ca2+

d. all of the above

all of the above

Which tubule set of the sarcotubular system releases Ca2+ when depolarized for their diffusion to the myofibrils?

a. transverse tubules

b. sarcoplasmic reticulum

sarcoplasmic reticulum

What chemical substance is released from vesicles at the neuromuscular junction on the arrival of a nerve impulse?

a. succinylcholine

b. epinephrine

c. acetylcholine

d. curare

acetylcholine

Rigor mortis most probably occurs when:

a. actin and myosin are detached

b. Ca2+ is depleted

c. insufficient ATP is available for relaxation

d. Contraction frequency is rapid and sustained.

insufficient ATP is available for relaxation

The function of Ca2+ at the level of myofilaments is to:

a. uncover active sites on actin so that the "cocked" projections of myosin may make an attachment

b. depolarize the muscle-fiber membrane

c. initiate acetylcholine release

d. block pores to prevent Na+ inrush

uncover active sites on actin so that the "cocked" projections of myosin may make an attachment

What chemical begins the depolarization of skeletal-muscle fibers after the nerve impulse initiates its release?

a. Ca2+

b. acetylcholine

c. succinylcholine

d. acetylcholinesterase

acetylcholine

After depolarization of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, what chemical is released that initiates the contraction process?

a. ATP

b. Tropomyosin

c. Ca2+

d. ACh

Ca2+

Increased muscle strength associated with tetany is an example of:

a. wave summation

b. motor-unit summation

c. Clostridium tetani neurotoxin activity

wave summation

Myosin cross-bridge heads detach from actin sites when the cross-bridge heads bind:

a. Ca2+

b. ATP

c. creatine phosphate

d. ADP + Pi

ATP

Rigor mortis is an example of ___________, which results from a depletion of _________ and a failure of cross-bridge heads to __________ to/from actin

a. contraction; Ca2+; attach

b. relaxation; Ca2+; detach

c. Contracture; ATP; detach

d. Contraction; ATP; detach

Contracture; ATP; detach

The Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins the contraction process by:

a. "cocking" the myosin filament cross-bridge heads

b. rephosphorylating ADP

c. exposing actin filament cross-bridge binding sites

d. facilitating ACH release from the neuromuscular junction

exposing actin filament cross-bridge binding sites

Dense bodies (corresponding to Z lines) and intermediate filament bundles are associated with shortening of the longitudinal axis of:

a. smooth-muscle cells

b. skeletal-muscle cells

c. cardiac muscle cells

smooth-muscle cells

The slower attachment-detachment of cross-bridge heads that extend from myosin to actin is advantageous for:

a. smooth muscle

b. cardiac muscle

c. skeletal muscle

smooth muscle

Muscles showing an increase in the size of their individual muscle fibers are said to have undergone:

a. atrophy

b. treppe

c. hypertrophy

d. gangrene

hypertrophy

An increase in the number of muscle fibers is called:

a. atrophy

b. hypertrophy

c. hyperplasia

hyperplasia