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Fill-in-the-blank flashcards covering airway management, ventilator care, chest drainage, ARDS, burns, and shock topics from the lecture notes.
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During Rapid Observation, if obstruction is identified, the next step is to __.
intubate
Cuff pressures should be maintained between 20 and 25 mm Hg (24 to 30 cm H2O) because high cuff pressure can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis, whereas low cuff pressure can increase the risk of __.
aspiration pneumonia
Endotracheal intubation may be used for no longer than __ days, by which time a tracheostomy must be considered.
14 to 21 days
Endotracheal suctioning removes __ through the tube.
tracheobronchial secretions
A tracheostomy is used to bypass an upper airway obstruction, allow removal of secretions, and to long-term mechanical ventilation.
permit
The tracheostomy long-term complication list includes airway obstruction, infection, rupture of the innominate artery, dysphagia, fistula formation, tracheal dilatation, and __.
tracheal ischemia and necrosis
The four types of positive-pressure ventilation are Volume-cycled, Pressure-cycled, High frequency oscillatory support, and __.
NIPPV (noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation)
Noninvasive ventilation indications include Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) and __.
BiPAP (Bi-level Positive Airway Pressure)
A C-mode on a ventilator stands for __ ventilation.
Assist-control (A/C) ventilation
SIMV stands for __.
Synchronized Intermittent Mandatory Ventilation
To address an increase in peak airway pressure due to coughing or secretions, you should __ the airway for secretions.
suction
The ABCDE Bundle components include Awakening and Breathing trials, Delirium monitoring, and Early __.
Mobility
Weaning is the process of withdrawal of dependence upon the __.
ventilator
In a chest drainage system, the water-seal chamber acts as a calibrated __.
manometer
If suction is required, a __ bottle is added to the chest drainage system.
third
The depth of water in the suction control chamber determines the amount of negative pressure; bubbling indicates that air is entering the __ chamber.
suction control
Parkland Formula Volume for fluid resuscitation uses LR and is calculated as 4 mL × %BSA × weight (kg) for the first 24 hours; half of this is given in the first __ hours.
8 hours
Emergent or resuscitative phase is from the onset of injury to the completion of __ resuscitation.
fluid
Major Burns are defined as involving more than __% TBSA.
30%
Major burn infections commonly involve __ and MRSA.
Pseudomonas
The three phases of burn injury are Emergent (resuscitative), Acute (intermediate), and __.
Rehabilitation
ARDS management includes PEEP to keep alveoli open, prone positioning, and supportive care; if PEEP cannot be maintained despite sedation, neuromuscular blocking agents may be used to achieve __.
paralysis
BNP levels help distinguish ARDS from __ pulmonary edema.
cardiogenic
Virchow’s triad risk factors for pulmonary embolism include venous stasis, hypercoagulability, and __ endothelial disease.
venous (endothelial) injury/disease
Prevention of PE includes early ambulation and the use of __ devices.
Sequential Compression Devices (SCDs)
Neurogenic shock presents with low BP and bradycardia and warm, dry skin due to loss of __ tone.
sympathetic
Distributive (circulatory) shock includes septic, neurogenic, and __ shock.
anaphylactic
In shock management, fluid replacement and vasoactive medications are used to restore intravascular volume and vasomotor tone; nutritional support is also essential. This combination is part of __ management.
shock
Crystalloids used in fluid replacement include 0.9% saline and lactated Ringer’s; hypertonic solutions are also used; a potential complication is __ edema.
pulmonary/overload edema (fluid overload)
Vasoactive medications are titrated to the patient’s response and are usually given through a central line to avoid __ injury.
extravasation
The parametric burn resuscitation protocol recommends starting fluid resuscitation immediately and continuing for the first __ hours post-injury (Parkland protocol).
24 hours
Wound debridement in burn care can be natural (spontaneous), mechanical, or __ (surgical).
surgical
Biobrane is a type of __ dressing used in burn wound management.
skin substitute (biosynthetic dressing)
Enteral nutrition is preferred in burn care; jejunal feeds are used to maintain nutrition with lower risk of __.
aspiration
American Burn Association criteria for referral to a burn center includes partial-thickness burns covering at least __% TBSA, among other criteria.
10%
A major burn injury often requires early excision and wound closure, sometimes followed by a skin graft; this is called __ debridement.
surgical
In burn care, circumferential dressings should be applied in a distal-to-proximal direction to promote return of excess fluid to the central circulation; this helps prevent __ from distal to proximal areas.
edema/edema buildup
The Zones of Burn Injury include the zone of coagulation, zone of stasis, and zone of __ hyperemia.
hyperemia
The major organisms associated with burn wound infection include Pseudomonas and __.
MRSA
The Parkland Formula includes giving half of the calculated LR volume in the first 8 hours and the remainder over the next __ hours.
16 hours
In the emergent phase of burn care, pain management is addressed with IV medications; oxygen and large-bore IVs are started early, and the patient is stabilized; this is part of the plan for __ care.
emergent/resuscitative
A chest tube drainage system must be kept below the level of the chest to promote __ drainage.
gravity
The air-fluid drainage in chest tubes is monitored by the water-seal chamber, which can show an air leak as __ in the chamber.
bubbling
In burn wound care, occlusive dressings may be used over graft sites to protect the graft and promote proper adherence; these dressings are typically left in place for __ days.
3 to 5
The term for the collapse of alveoli and exudate flow leading to impaired gas exchange in burns and ARDS is __.
hypoxemia/hypoxia