audiology midterm

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105 Terms

1
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What anatomical structure are apart of the inner ear?

-cochlea

-semicircular canal

-oval window

2
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What is considered apart of the scope of practice of an Audiologist?

-identify hearing loss

-prevent hearing loss

-identify vestibular disorders

3
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Late onset of hearing loss can be genetic in origin. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

4
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Elasticity is when an object is in motion, it will stay in motion. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

5
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What are the three pre-requisites of sound?

-source of energy

-vibration

-medium

6
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Which diagnosis' has a correlation to hearing loss?

-diabetes

-high cholesterol

-hypertension

7
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There are three muscles in the middle ear space that suspend the ossicular chain, allowing for movement. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

8
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Physical phenomenon that describes a movement or vibration of an elastic medium without permanent displacement of the particles. What is this?

Sound

9
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The eustachian tube helps to drain fluid that otherwise would accumulate in the middle ear space and cause an ear infection. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

10
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Tympanometry is a direct measure of hearing. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

11
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Live voice is the preferred method when administering Word Recognition testing. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

12
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Findings during air conduction audiometry cannot localize the site of damage (etiology of hearing loss). TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

13
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Pure tone air conduction audiometry determines the loudness or intensity threshold in dB at which a person just begins to hear sound for this normal mode of sound transmission. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

14
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Masking keeps the test ear busy, while establishing results for the non-test ear. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

15
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Speech Reception Threshold and Speech Recognition Threshold are considered the same terminology for finding the lowest threshold a patient can repeat back a spondee word. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

16
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Visual Reinforcement audiometry is used for children with a development age of 6-7 months up to 24 months. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

17
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Air conduction masking is performed when there is a difference of 40dB between ears using insert earphones. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

18
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Otoscopy should be performed after the hearing evaluation. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

19
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Videonystagmography tests the auditory system and is hearing specific. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

20
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Air conduction masking is performed when there is a difference of 60dB between ears using insert earphones. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

21
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OAE testing does not rule out mild hearing loss. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

22
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ABR testing is the choice of test for neonatal infants. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

23
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Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR) testing can be useful in evaluating difficult to test patients. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

24
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What are indirect methods of testing hearing sensitivity?

-DPOAE

-TEOAE

-ABR

25
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Transient Evoked otoacoustic emissions and Distortion Product otoacoustic emissions both rule out a more significant hearing loss (moderately severe or worse). TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

26
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Videonystagmography tests the vestibular system. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

27
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Auditory Steady state response (ASSR) can be used as a direct measure of hearing. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

28
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TEOAE stands for Temporary Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions. TRUE or FALSE?

FALSE

29
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Nystagmus (rapid eye movement) is to be expected during what part of the VNG test?

Calorics or Vestibular portion test. This is where air or water goes into the ear canal to stimulate semicircular canals.

30
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An outline of the parameters of each profession is called what?

Scope of Practice

31
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What keeps the non test ear busy while establishing true threshold for ear?

Masking

32
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All speech testing should be done using a recorded voice. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

33
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Outer hair cells (OHC) tuned to intensity while inner ear cells (IHC) are tuned to clarity. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

34
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Middle ear testing consists of what 4 tests?

-Tympanometry

-Acoustic reflex

-Acoustic reflex decay

-Eustachian tube function

35
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Can an SLP perform hearing evaluations and hearing screenings?

No hearing evaluations.

Yes hearing screenings.

36
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The Eustachian Tube helps to drain fluid which might accumulate in middle ear and cause ear infections. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

37
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Why is air conduction & bone conduction required?

to determine etiology of hearing loss.

38
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Sound is measured on what type of scale?

logarithmic scale

39
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What does word recognition do for patients?

it gives a realistic expectation for patients with hearing loss and how they will perform with hearing aids.

40
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Audiometers are calibrated in DBHL whereas sound meter are calibrated in DBSPL. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

41
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An audiologist cannot diagnose what?

Communication disorders, swallowing disorders, etc.

42
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A Eustachian tube function test determines what?

determines if the Eustachian Tube is equalizing pressure like it should be.

43
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VNG testing evaluates 3 parts of the balance system. What are the 3 parts?

1. visual

2. vestibular

3. proprioception center in the brain

(eye, ear, and how they work together)

44
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Tympanometry measures what?

How the middle ear (tympanic membrane and ossicles) are functioning and moving

45
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OAE rules out moderate or worse hearing loss. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

46
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What is Air Conduction?

the normal means of sound transmission in day-to-day situations

47
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Should speech recognition threshold (SRT) be in agreement with pure tone Average (PTA)?

Yes, they should always be in agreement with one another.

48
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OAE testing is comprised of TEOE & DPOE. TRUE or FALSE?

TRUE

49
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A physical phenomenon that describes a movement or vibration of an elastic medium without permanent displacement of the particles.

Sound

50
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Quantity of matter present.

Mass

51
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A push or a pull on an object.

- mass times acceleration

Force

52
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Tendency of an object's resistance to deformity and its return to the rest position.

Elasticity

53
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Tendency to resist any change in motion.

Inertia

54
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The speed of an object per a unit of time.

Acceleration

55
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Increase pressure and density of air molecules.

Condensation

56
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Thinning of air molecules that creates areas of DECREASE air pressure and density.

Rarefaction

57
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If areas of alternating condensation and rarefaction occur at a steady rate of change, the resulting pressure wave is said to be a pure tone.

Pure Tone

58
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the number of complete vibratory cycles per unit time, measured in Hertz (Hz).

Frequency

59
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A derived unit of measurement describing an object's distance from rest to maximal displacement.

Amplitude

60
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Amount of time needed to complete one cycle of vibration, measured in units of time.

Period

61
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Describes the relative timing of compressions and rarefactions of waves (i.e., how cycles relate to each other).

Phase

62
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The power of the sound in Watts divided by the area the sound covers in meters.

Intensity

63
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The intensity of any given sound to the intensity at the threshold of hearing.

Loudness

64
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A logarithmic unit used to measure sound level.

Decibel

65
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What are 3 parts of the outer ear?

-pinna (auricle)

-external auditory meatus/canal

-tympanic membrane (eardrum)

66
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It collects sound, assists in sound localization, acts as a protective barrier, & boosts high frequency sounds. What part of the ear is this?

Outer ear

67
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What are the parts of the middle ear?

-Inner layer of tympanic membrane

-3 Ossicles

-Eustachian Tube

-2 Ligaments

-2 muscles

68
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It matches the transfer of energy between air to fluid, equalizes pressure between middle ear & nasopharynx, protective barrier, & amplifies sounds from 100-2500 Hz. What part of the ear is this?

Middle ear

69
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Cochlear wave mechanics, neroelectrical impulse generator. What part of the ear is this?

Inner ear

70
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Otoscopy do's & don't's?

Do's

- When holding otoscope, use protective barrier/ brace the face

- Earn a patient's trust prior to touching their body.

- Exercise universal precautions when coming into direct physical contact with a patient.

- Explain the process (when appropriate) to the patient: "I'm going to just take a look into your ear."

Don'ts

-Don't perform if there's active drainage/ in pain

- Perform otoscopy on a child first, if the child is hesitant about the testing process.

You can always go back and look after audiometric testing is complete.

71
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Under development of the pinna or external ear, is called what?

Microtia

72
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What type of tympanogram would be expected for Microtia?

None. Wouldn't be able to do it or perform otoscope because of no ear canal.

73
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Where is Intensity (dB) & Frequency (Hz) on a graph?

Intensity is vertical (up/down) & Frequency is horizontal

74
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What is air conduction audiometry?

-occurs through air near the ear, and it involves the ear canal and eardrum

-normal means how someone hears, determines intensity in which you hear

75
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What instructions do you give a client for air conduction audiometry?

tell me when you hear a very quiet beep

76
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For an air conduction audiometry, at what dB difference between ear do we perform masking?

40 dB- headphones

60 dB- inserts

77
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What is the meaning of threshold?

the quietest sound you can hear

78
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What is bone conduction audiometry?

how we hear sound through the skull

79
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what does bone conduction audiometry determine?

how loud we can hear from the inner ear to brain

80
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What instructions do you give a client for bone conduction audiometry?

you will wear this headband and it will sit on mastoid bone. Let me know when you hear the beep.

81
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What is SRT? & what words do we use to measure?

-Speech regular threshold

-uses spondee words

-measures minimum hearing level

82
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What does SAT/SDT measure? What words do we use to measure? Speech Detection Threshold (SDT) - aka Speech Awareness Threshold (SAT)

- Able to detect the sounds but are unable to comprehend what is being said

- Body parts, name, spondees, etc.

83
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What does MCL and UCL measure? What words do we use to measure?

MCL

- Use in hearing aid fitting

-Decibel level that the most comfortable to follow

UCL

-Use in hearing aid fitting

-Individual with hearing loss have a higher sensitivity to loud sounds

84
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What does Word Recognition measure? What words do we use to measure?

-Testing patient's clarity once hearing has been made comfortable

-Differences between lists and records vs. live voice

85
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Types of Electroacoustic Tests?

-TEOAE (quick signal to ear) - usually used for babies

-DPOAE (longer signal to ear)

OAE's are more commonly done because they are quicker & cheaper.

86
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Types of Electrophysiologic Tests?

-ABR (gold standard- NICU babies/ diagnostic or hearing screening)

-ASSR

-VNG (balance eval- tests eyes, ears, proferal reception center)

87
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<p>What is the condition or diagnosis called?</p>

What is the condition or diagnosis called?

microtia and atresia

88
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microtia

Underdevelopment of the pinna itself

89
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Atresia

Underdevelopment of the ear canal itself

90
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<p>What is the condition or diagnosis called?</p>

What is the condition or diagnosis called?

Tympanic membrane perforation

91
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What type of Tympanogram would be expected for a tympanic membrane perforation?

type b

92
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<p>What is the condition or diagnosis called?</p>

What is the condition or diagnosis called?

pressure equalization tube

93
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<p>What is the condition or diagnosis called?</p>

What is the condition or diagnosis called?

cerumen impaction

94
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What type of Tympanogram would be expected for pressure equalization tubes?

1.Large type b temp

95
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2 muscles in middle ear

stapedius and tensor tympani

96
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drainage of ear wax

otorrhea

97
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What type of tympanogram would be used for otorrhea?

no tympanogram

98
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<p>what type of tympanogram is this? </p>

what type of tympanogram is this?

type a

99
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<p>what type of tympanogram is this? </p>

what type of tympanogram is this?

type A

100
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<p>what type of tympanogram is this? </p>

what type of tympanogram is this?

Type Ad