Mental Disorders (Spring 2026)

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With Dr. Sean Hall :)

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1
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What is one of the main problems in determining whether one's depression is endogenous or reactive? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. Most people forget, or repress, the stressful events that may have led to their depression.

B. It is unclear whether exposure to a stressor was a contributing factor or if it was a coincidence.

C. People with depression often underreport being exposed to stressful events.

D. It is virtually impossible to study endogenous factors that are linked to depression.

B. It is unclear whether exposure to a stressor was a contributing factor or if it was a coincidence.

2
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What is the BEST example of a motivational symptom of unipolar depression? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. a man who has lost his sense of humor and feels miserable

B. a woman who thinks that her sadness will never go away

C. a man who stops cleaning his apartment and even stops showering

D. a woman who no longer goes out with friends and stays home alone for weeks

D. a woman who no longer goes out with friends and stays home alone for weeks

3
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A person suspected of having unipolar depression has a smaller-than-usual hippocampus, although it produces a typical number of new neurons.

This is: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. typical.

B. unusual; individuals with unipolar depression usually have a smaller-than-usual hippocampus, causing it to produce a low number of new neurons.

C. unusual; individuals with unipolar depression usually have a typical-sized hippocampus, causing it to produce a low number of new neurons.

D. very unusual; individuals with unipolar depression usually have a typical-sized hippocampus, causing it to produce a typical number of new neurons.

B. unusual; individuals with unipolar depression usually have a smaller-than-usual hippocampus, causing it to produce a low number of new neurons.

4
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Roshan no longer enjoys their usual hobbies, talking to their friends, or even playing with their dog. In fact, Roshan didn't even care when they learned that they were up for a promotion at work.

This BEST describes someone with: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. fatalism.

B. anhedonia.

C. automatic thinking.

D. dysregulation.

B. anhedonia.

5
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Which finding would MOST strongly support the assumption that learned helplessness is a potential cause of depression? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. evidence from archival records showing increases in the incidence of depression following natural disasters

B. evidence from a survey showing that most depressed people report prior exposure to uncontrollable negative events

C. evidence from an experiment showing that when people are exposed to uncontrollable negative events, depressive symptoms follow

D. evidence from a clinical interview in which a client reports being exposed to uncontrollable negative events prior to seeking therapy

C. evidence from an experiment showing that when people are exposed to uncontrollable negative events, depressive symptoms follow

6
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Elias alternates between periods of deep despair depression and high-flying enthusiasm. He rarely settles into an even-tempered middle.

His physician is MOST likely to recommend treatment with: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. an SSRI.

B. lithium.

C. ketamine.

D. thorazine.

B. lithium.

7
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A person taking antidepressant medication is starting to gain weight and reports decreasing interest in sexual activity.

These changes are MOST common among people taking which kind of antidepressant medication? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. MAO inhibitors

B. tricyclics antidepressants

C. second-generation antidepressants

D. vagus nerve stimulators

C. second-generation antidepressants

8
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A 12-year-old middle-school European American girl from a middle-class socioeconomic background has been diagnosed with bipolar I disorder.

Which characteristic is MOST unusual for those with bipolar I disorder diagnosis? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. her age

B. her ethnicity

C. her gender

D. her socioeconomic background

A. her age

9
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If a study demonstrated that depression is caused by concerns about one's weight, that finding would provide strong evidence ____ explanation. (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. against the hormone

B. for the hormone

C. against the body dissatisfaction

D. for the body dissatisfaction

D. for the body dissatisfaction

10
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The person associated with the learned helplessness theory of depression is: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. Martin Seligman.

B. Albert Ellis.

C. Carl Gustav Jung.

D. B. F. Skinner.

A. Martin Seligman.

11
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What percentage of all adults experience an episode of severe depression at some point in their lives? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. 5 percent

B. 10 percent

C. 20 percent

D. 40 percent

C. 20 percent

12
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What would a person MOST likely have if a biochemical imbalance accompanied that person's depression? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. an irregularity in the activity of certain neurotransmitters, especially serotonin and norepinephrine

B. especially high levels of the neurotransmitters dopamine and acetylcholine and their metabolites

C. particularly low levels of the neurotransmitters cortisol and melatonin, as measured by their metabolites

D. an absence of the neurotransmitters cortisol and serotonin

A. an irregularity in the activity of certain neurotransmitters, especially serotonin and norepinephrine

13
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What is a typical number of treatment sessions for the treatment of major depressive disorder using electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. 2 to 5

B. 4 to 8

C. 6 to 12

D. 10 to 20

C. 6 to 12

14
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According to Aaron Beck, what are central to the development of unipolar depression? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. underlying conflicts

B. negative thoughts

C. reduced social rewards

D. losses in childhood

B. negative thoughts

15
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Psychotherapy plays a more central role in which disorder? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. bipolar I disorder

B. bipolar II disorder

C. rapid cycling bipolar disorder

D. cyclothymic disorder

D. cyclothymic disorder

16
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Renee's aunt says, "I know I'm depressed, and I think and worry about my depression constantly; however, I never actually do anything about it."

She is: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. providing an example of the cognitive triad.

B. making ruminative responses.

C. committing errors in logic.

D. regressing toward the oral stage of development.

B. making ruminative responses.

17
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What is the average age of onset of unipolar depression? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. 8

B. 19

C. 28

D. 45

B. 19

18
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_____ is a treatment in which tiny holes are drilled into the skull through which electrodes are implanted into the subgenual cingulate. (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. Vagus nerve stimulation

B. Transcranial magnetic stimulation

C. Deep brain stimulation

D. ECT

C. Deep brain stimulation

19
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Family pedigree, twin, and gene studies have been used to look for a predisposition for unipolar depression.

These studies have found: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. a lower rate of unipolar depression among children of parents with this disorder.

B. a higher than chance rate of depression among the families of depressed people.

C. high rates of unipolar depression among dizygotic twins but not among monozygotic twins.

D. no compelling evidence for depression among relatives of a depressed individual.

B. a higher than chance rate of depression among the families of depressed people.

20
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Researchers were searching for drugs to treat schizophrenia when they came across imipramine, which alleviated the symptoms of depression, although it was not effective against schizophrenia.

It became the first of a class of drugs, all sharing a similar molecular structure, called: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. tyramines.

B. tricyclics.

C. neuroleptics.

D. MAO inhibitors.

B. tricyclics.

21
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The developmental psychopathology perspective of depression can be characterized as: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. the most influential perspective because it has generated the most research.

B. a view that ties together many of the factors that are included in other theories.

C. a modern formulation of Freudian psychoanalytic theory.

D. a view that is likely to be abandoned in the future because it makes few testable predictions.

B. a view that ties together many of the factors that are included in other theories.

22
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Family pedigree, twin, and gene studies have been used to look for a predisposition for unipolar depression.

These studies are indicative of which theoretical model? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. the sociocultural framework

B. the psychodynamic framework

C. the cognitive-behavioral framework

D. the biological framework

D. the biological framework

23
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Researchers have concluded that in people experiencing depression, the neurotransmitter reuptake mechanisms are: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. too vigorous for both serotonin and norepinephrine.

B. insufficiently active for both serotonin and norepinephrine.

C. too vigorous for serotonin and insufficiently active for norepinephrine.

D. too vigorous for norepinephrine and insufficiently active for serotonin.

A. too vigorous for both serotonin and norepinephrine.

24
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People with bipolar disorder often say that their lives are like a: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. roller coaster.

B. meteorite.

C. power plant.

D. thunderstorm.

A. roller coaster.

25
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The difference between bipolar I disorder and bipolar II disorder is the: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. severity of the manic episodes.

B. number of depressive and manic episodes.

C. number of depressive episodes.

D. seasonal variation in the episodes.

A. severity of the manic episodes.

26
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Unipolar depression and bipolar disorder share all of these characteristics EXCEPT: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. problematic emotional extremes.

B. periods of severely or mildly depressive episodes.

C. significant distress or impairment.

D. inappropriate rises in mood.

D. inappropriate rises in mood.

27
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Anika has been seeing a psychiatrist for unipolar depression. A blood test determined that Anika has unusually low levels of norepinephrine.

This finding tends to support which theoretical perspective on Anika's condition? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. the biological perspective

B. the sociocultural perspective

C. the psychological perspective

D. the psychodynamic perspective

A. the biological perspective

28
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Which is NOT a common focus of psychotherapy, as part of adjunctive therapy, for bipolar disorder? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. challenging clients' automatic thoughts

B. preventing clients from attempting to die by suicide

C. educating clients and their families about bipolar disorders

D. helping clients solve the family, school, and occupational problems caused by their disorder

A. challenging clients' automatic thoughts

29
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Which is the MOST accurate description of the symptoms of mania? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. They are highly correlated with positive life events.

B. They are the same as the symptoms of depression (e.g., sadness) but accompanied by aggressiveness.

C. They don't include a sense of the impact of one's actions on others.

D. They very seldom include physical activity, and instead usually include only mental activity.

C. They don't include a sense of the impact of one's actions on others.

30
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A woman being treated for peripartum depression after the birth of her first child will: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. almost certainly not experience peripartum depression after later births.

B. have a 25 to 50 percent chance of experiencing peripartum depression with a later birth.

C. have a 60 to 70 percent chance of experiencing peripartum depression with all later births.

D. almost certainly experience peripartum depression with her next child, as well.

B. have a 25 to 50 percent chance of experiencing peripartum depression with a later birth.

31
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When patients taking MAO inhibitors ingest the naturally occurring chemical tyramine, what undesirable consequence can follow? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. blurred vision

B. debilitating headaches

C. a sharp rise in blood pressure

D. sudden loss of consciousness

C. a sharp rise in blood pressure

32
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Which method for delivering ketamine into the body has become the treatment of choice? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. nasal spray

B. dermal patch

C. oral tablet

D. intravenous drip

A. nasal spray

33
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Martin Seligman developed a theory based on the idea that depression results from: (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. the loss of a loved one, real or symbolic.

B. negative thinking and maladaptive thoughts.

C. a decrease in the number of positive reinforcements.

D. a belief that one has no control over the events in one's life.

D. a belief that one has no control over the events in one's life.

34
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Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) comes with a risk of brain damage.

How is that risk guarded against? (Unipolar Depression and Bipolar Disorders)

A. by administering oxygen

B. by administering barbiturates

C. by limiting the current level across the brain

D. by limiting the duration of the current across the brain

A. by administering oxygen

35
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Miguel has arachnophobia. His therapist first has him go through relaxation training, and then has him construct a fear hierarchy. Finally, the therapist has Miguel go through a phase of graded pairings of spiders and relaxation responses.

This approach is called: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. modeling.

B. flooding.

C. preparedness therapy.

D. systematic desensitization

D. systematic desensitization

36
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When Ismail was 5 years old, he was playing with a stuffed bunny when a burglar broke into his home. Now, as an adult, Ismail is terrified of rabbits.

Why do cognitive-behavioral theorists believe Ismail dreads rabbits, even though he should know they are not dangerous? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. Logan never got close enough to rabbits to learn they are actually harmless.

B. Logan's brain has been rewired by his childhood trauma.

C. Fearing rabbits protects Logan from confronting real threats in the world.

D. Logan's fear has been transmitted genetically through an evolutionary process.

A. Logan never got close enough to rabbits to learn they are actually harmless.

37
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Lorna is very fearful of speaking in public and will do everything she can to avoid being evaluated by others, which causes her significant impairment.

The MOST accurate diagnosis for her condition would be: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. agoraphobia.

B. specific phobia.

C. panic disorder.

D. social anxiety disorder.

D. social anxiety disorder.

38
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A person says, "I've been diagnosed with social anxiety disorder, and my therapist wants me to use drug therapy, not psychological therapy. I don't know which to choose."

Based on current research, the BEST answer would be: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. That's the best advice your therapist could have given.

B. Some therapists think psychological therapy should always be used, even with drug therapy; there's less chance of relapse.

C. Drug therapy works especially well in combination with short-term psychodynamic therapy; cognitive-behavioral therapies don't help much.

D. Unfortunately, no therapy works very well in the long run for most people with social anxiety disorder.

B. Some therapists think psychological therapy should always be used, even with drug therapy; there's less chance of relapse.

39
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Schuyler constantly avoids crowded gatherings. In fact, they rarely leave home. A friend who observed Schuyler freeze up and nearly pass out at a crowded farmers' market suggested that Schuyler visit a therapist.

MOST likely, Schuyler would be diagnosed with: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. obsessive-compulsive disorder and specific phobia.

B. specific phobia and agoraphobia.

C. agoraphobia and panic disorder.

D. panic disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder.

C. agoraphobia and panic disorder.

40
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Sebastian was outside the parking garage when, out of nowhere, he suddenly felt dizzy. Sebastian became overwhelmed and fearful and began sweating and trembling. The intensity of the feelings seemed to reach a peak and then pass within a few minutes.

What is Sebastian experiencing? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. a panic attack

B. a phobic disorder

C. generalized anxiety disorder

D. posttraumatic stress disorder

A. a panic attack

41
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When Cardin was a beginning driver, they almost ran over a 5-year-old child. Ever since then, they are extremely fearful of getting behind the wheel of a car.

A behaviorist would say that Cardin acquired this fear by: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. modeling.

B. operant conditioning.

C. classical conditioning.

D. flooding

C. classical conditioning.

42
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Graeme is never happy with how anything they do turns out. They are always berating themselves for less-than-perfect performance at school. Others regularly tell Graeme not to be so hard on themselves.

Carl Rogers would refer to Graeme's self-expectations as: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. conditions of worth.

B. the performance fallacy.

C. the displeasure principle.

D. person-centric thinking.

A. conditions of worth.

43
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Sashi occasionally experiences an irregular pulse. When this happens, they panic and fear they are about to die. In time, they start to experience panic attacks just over the worry that their heart might be beating irregularly.

Sashi apparently has a high degree of: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. social anxiety.

B. specific phobia.

C. obsessive imagery.

D. anxiety sensitivity

D. anxiety sensitivity

44
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Omar and Kwan are born into different families and raised in very different environments. Yet as adults they have similar personalities and both have anxiety disorder.

This outcome illustrates what is called the principle of: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. convergence.

B. parallelism.

C. congruence.

D. equifinality

D. equifinality

45
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Agoraphobia is the fear of: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. flying.

B. speaking.

C. public places.

D. spiders.

C. public places.

46
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People with _____ keep picking at their skin, resulting in significant sores or wounds. (Anxiety Disorders)

A. body dysmorphic disorder

B. excoriation disorder

C. trichotillomania

D. hoarding disorder

B. excoriation disorder

47
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What are the inaccurate and inappropriate beliefs held by people with various psychological disorders called, according to Albert Ellis? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. compulsive thoughts

B. obsessive doubts

C. meta-worries

D. basic irrational assumptions

D. basic irrational assumptions

48
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What is the scientific name for hair-pulling disorder? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. capillomania

B. trichotillomania

C. malliamania

D. alopecimania

B. trichotillomania

49
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Which disorder is characterized by severe, persistent, and irrational worry and nervousness of interacting with others or performing in front of others in which embarrassment may occur? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. specific phobias

B. generalized anxiety disorder

C. agoraphobia

D. social anxiety disorder

D. social anxiety disorder

50
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About _____ percent of the U.S. population practices mindfulness techniques. (Anxiety Disorders)

A. 14

B. 25

C. 35

D. 50

A. 14

51
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A belief of many early cognitive-behavioral therapists, and one that continues to be influential today, is that generalized anxiety disorder is induced by: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. maladaptive assumptions.

B. lack of empathy.

C. interpersonal loss.

D. overactive id impulses.

A. maladaptive assumptions.

52
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Gabapentinoids are now often prescribed for generalized anxiety disorder.

What were they originally used to treat? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. nerve pain

B. insomnia

C. bipolar disorder

D. high blood pressure

A. nerve pain

53
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Disorders that involve particular patterns of repetitive and excessive behavior that greatly disrupt a person's life and can cause shame are called: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. borderline personality disorders.

B. panic disorders.

C. social anxiety disorders.

D. obsessive-compulsive–related disorders.

D. obsessive-compulsive–related disorders.

54
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Which of these describes a compulsion? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. a thought, idea, impulse, or image that seems to invade a person's consciousness

B. a strong fear that influences anxiety

C. a repetitive and rigid behavior or mental act that people feel they must perform

D. a thought that a person cannot get out of their head

C. a repetitive and rigid behavior or mental act that people feel they must perform

55
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In a research setting, a drug is given to a person. The drug causes that person to hyperventilate and experience a rapid heart rate.

This is a(n) _____ test. (Anxiety Disorders)

A. in vivo

B. modeling

C. covert sensitization

D. biological challenge

D. biological challenge

56
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"Phobic and generalized anxiety disorders arise when people stop looking at themselves honestly and with acceptance and instead deny and distort their true thoughts, emotions, and behavior."

Which kind of theorist would offer the preceding explanation for anxiety disorders? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. a biological theorist

B. a cognitive-behavioral theorist

C. a sociocultural theorist

D. a humanistic theorist

D. a humanistic theorist

57
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Which is one component of social anxiety disorder, according to research by cognitive theorists? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. underestimating how badly a social event actually went

B. repeatedly reviewing social events after they have occurred

C. refusing to acknowledge that one has limited social skills

D. blaming others when a social event goes poorly

B. repeatedly reviewing social events after they have occurred

58
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How does fear differ from anxiety? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. Fear is a response to a specific threat, whereas anxiety is more general.

B. Anxiety is more likely to lead to aggression than is fear.

C. Fear is a response to an inanimate threat, whereas anxiety is a response to an interpersonal threat.

D. Anxiety is an immediate response, whereas fear is vaguer.

A. Fear is a response to a specific threat, whereas anxiety is more general.

59
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Panic disorder appears to be related to irregular activity of which neurotransmitter? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. norepinephrine

B. glutamate

C. gabapentinoid

D. acetylcholine

A. norepinephrine

60
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Psychodynamic therapies as a treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorders: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. appear to work better when used in the short term rather than in traditional ways.

B. must avoid pointing out the client's defense mechanisms.

C. work on intensifying the underlying conflict.

D. do not interpret the client's behavior.

A. appear to work better when used in the short term rather than in traditional ways.

61
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The MOST appropriate motto for someone with generalized anxiety disorder is: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. "Always stay in the moment."

B. "Better safe than sorry."

C. "You only live once."

D. "Fortune favors the bold."

B. "Better safe than sorry."

62
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Which statement MOST accurately reflects current research findings regarding phobias? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. Phobias are always a result of classical conditioning.

B. Phobias are almost always a result of classical conditioning.

C. Phobias ordinarily are a result of classical conditioning.

D. Phobias can sometimes be a result of classical conditioning.

D. Phobias can sometimes be a result of classical conditioning.

63
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Research indicates that for clients diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, a concentrated focus on worrying: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. has little or no effect on the amount of worry.

B. is helpful as part of therapy for the disorder.

C. makes the disorder even worse generally.

D. has an unpredictable effect.

B. is helpful as part of therapy for the disorder.

64
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Which medications work primarily by mimicking the chemical behavior of GABA? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. barbiturates

B. benzodiazepines

C. antipsychotics

D. antiandrogens

B. benzodiazepines

65
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Cognitive-behavioral theorists believe that compulsive behavior is: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. reinforced because engaging in it reduces anxiety.

B. originally associated with an increased level of anxiety.

C. logically, rather than randomly, connected to fearful situations.

D. exhibited by everyone.

A. reinforced because engaging in it reduces anxiety.

66
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A neurologist who was working with a person with obsessive-compulsive disorder would be suspicious of irregularity in which region of the brain? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. hippocampus

B. locus coeruleus

C. caudate nucleus

D. cerebellum

C. caudate nucleus

67
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A person attempts to eliminate unwanted thoughts by thinking or behaving in ways that put matters right internally.

They are trying to _____ the thoughts. (Anxiety Disorders)

A. reinforce

B. increase

C. neutralize

D. clarify

C. neutralize

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What does the client do when the modeling approach is used to treat a phobia? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. The client confronts the feared object directly.

B. The client observes the therapist confronting the feared object.

C. The client imagines the therapist confronting the feared object.

D. The client imagines themself confronting the feared object.

B. The client observes the therapist confronting the feared object.

69
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Which statement is MOST accurate? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. Anxiety is caused by deficient levels of GABA throughout the brain.

B. Long-term anxiety contributes to poor GABA reception.

C. High GABA reception causes long-term anxiety.

D. Low GABA levels can increase activity in the fear circuit, leading to increased anxiety.

D. Low GABA levels can increase activity in the fear circuit, leading to increased anxiety.

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Benzodiazepines are believed to be effective in treating generalized anxiety disorder because they promote the activity of which neurotransmitter at certain neuron receptor sites in the brain? (Anxiety Disorders)

A. gamma-aminobutyric acid

B. norepinephrine

C. glutamate

D. serotonin

A. gamma-aminobutyric acid

71
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People who experience obsessions experience: (Anxiety Disorders)

A. typical levels of worry about real problems.

B. thoughts that are intrusive and foreign to them.

C. thoughts that they can easily ignore and resist.

D. a lack of awareness that the thoughts are inappropriate.

B. thoughts that are intrusive and foreign to them.

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The group of hormones that are referred to as stress hormones are: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. prolactins.

B. corticosteroids.

C. peptide hormones.

D. amino acid derivatives

B. corticosteroids.

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What do acute and posttraumatic stress disorders have in common with dissociative disorders? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. They are diagnoses, first appearing in DSM-5-TR.

B. They are most successfully treated with the same sort of medication: antipsychotics.

C. They are triggered by traumatic events.

D. They are varieties of depression.

C. They are triggered by traumatic events.

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When a dangerous situation is recognized, what brain structure releases neurotransmitters to trigger the firing of neurons and the release of chemicals throughout the body? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. hypothalamus

B. pituitary gland

C. medulla oblongata

D. amygdala

A. hypothalamus

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Which statement MOST accurately describes the sympathetic nervous system route of the stress response? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. The hypothalamus excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones, causing even more arousal.

B. The parasympathetic nervous system excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones, producing even more arousal.

C. The adrenal glands stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, which then suppresses the release of corticosteroids, which moderates the stress response.

D. The hypothalamus inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, which then inhibits body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing a reduction in arousal.

A. The hypothalamus excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones, causing even more arousal.

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What is NOT an example of a stressor? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. walking the dog every day

B. driving in traffic

C. the power going out

D. spilling coffee on your clothes

A. walking the dog every day

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The network of glands that releases hormones into the bloodstream is the _____ system. (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. nervous

B. exocrine

C. endocrine

D. autonomic

C. endocrine

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In response to a threat, we perspire, breathe more quickly, get goosebumps, and feel nauseated.

These responses are controlled by the: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. endocrine system.

B. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.

C. sympathetic nervous system.

D. parasympathetic nervous system

C. sympathetic nervous system.

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Poor health is BEST described as a: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. stress.

B. stressor.

C. stress response.

D. stress model

B. stressor.

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Which statement MOST accurately describes the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis of the stress response? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release corticosteroids.

B. The hypothalamus produces corticosteroids, which stimulate the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone.

C. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce corticosteroids that cause the adrenal gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone.

D. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release hypothalamic hormone in a feedback loop.

A. The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release corticosteroids.

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The statement, "This is awful, but I guess I can deal with it like I do everything else," represents one person's: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. stress.

B. stressor.

C. stress response.

D. somatization

C. stress response.

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The hippocampus does all of these EXCEPT: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. regulate stress hormones in the body.

B. communicate with the amygdala to produce the emotional components of memory.

C. help prevent dissociation and arousal symptoms of PTSD.

D. communicate stress signals to the prefrontal cortex

D. communicate stress signals to the prefrontal cortex

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Many theorists argue that one component of EMDR therapy for PTSD does not contribute much to positive outcomes.

What is that one component? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. focus on "hot spots"

B. eye movement

C. drug therapy

D. flooding

B. eye movement

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Which demographic group is more likely than another demographic group to develop a stress disorder? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. Non-Hispanic white Americans are more likely than Hispanic Americans to develop a stress disorder.

B. People in late adulthood are more likely than adolescents to develop a stress disorder.

C. People with low income are more likely than people with high income to develop a stress disorder.

D. Heterosexual, cisgender persons are more likely than LGBTQ persons to develop a stress disorder.

C. People with low income are more likely than people with high income to develop a stress disorder.

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A person who witnessed a horrible car accident and then became unusually anxious and depressed for three weeks is probably experiencing: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. posttraumatic stress disorder.

B. pretraumatic stress disorder.

C. combat fatigue.

D. acute stress disorder.

D. acute stress disorder.

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Grief that interferes with daily living more than a year after the death of a loved one is referred to as: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. prolonged grief disorder.

B. persistent grief disorder.

C. persistent complex bereavement disorder.

D. prolonged bereavement disorder.

A. prolonged grief disorder.

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What is the minimum amount of time that significant distress or impairment must be present in order to be diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. more than five years

B. more than three months

C. more than one month

D. more than one week

C. more than one month

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Which is typical of posttraumatic stress disorder? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. increased arousal, negative emotions, and guilt

B. inability to remember the event that led to the stress

C. increased responsiveness and emotion right after the event

D. obsession with revisiting the site of the traumatic event

A. increased arousal, negative emotions, and guilt

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Members of which demographic group are MOST likely to be rape survivors? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. nonbinary people

B. cisgender women

C. transgender people

D. cisgender men

C. transgender people

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The irregular activity of which neurotransmitter has been linked to traumatic events? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. GABA

B. serotonin

C. dopamine

D. norepinephrine

D. norepinephrine

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Women have higher rates of PTSD than men.

Many researchers attribute this to: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. cultural factors that allow women to be more open about their trauma than men.

B. greater frequency of traumatic experiences among women.

C. the types of violent traumas women experience.

D. biological factors, including genetic influences

C. the types of violent traumas women experience.

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What kind of therapy entails a combat veteran repeatedly journaling about their traumatic experience? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. written exposure therapy

B. group therapy

C. virtual reality therapy

D. drug therapy

A. written exposure therapy

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A friend says to you, "I know someone who is a combat veteran who was just diagnosed with PTSD. Do you think therapy will help this person?"

Which is the BEST answer to give based on current research? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. Probably. But more than one-third of treated combat veterans prematurely discontinue their PTSD treatment.

B. Probably. More than 90 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD eventually show improvement.

C. Almost certainly. About 80 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD show almost immediate improvement, and most of the rest show improvement within two years of starting therapy.

D. Yes. Almost everyone receiving treatment for PTSD shows improvement within a few months.

A. Probably. But more than one-third of treated combat veterans prematurely discontinue their PTSD treatment.

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A person's levels of cortisol and norepinephrine are in the typical range.

What is that person MOST likely experiencing? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. no stress disorders

B. severe stress response

C. the flight-or-fight syndrome

D. posttraumatic stress disorder

A. no stress disorders

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Researchers have found that in people with PTSD, the interconnection between the amygdala and prefrontal cortex is flawed because: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. the amygdala is too active, and the prefrontal cortex is not active enough.

B. the amygdala is not active enough, and the prefrontal cortex is too active.

C. neither is active enough.

D. both are too active.

A. the amygdala is too active, and the prefrontal cortex is not active enough.

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After Kali survived a plane crash, her mother came to stay with her. Her friends visited often and went to lunch and dinner with Kali occasionally. This situation probably contributed to Kali's coping ability after the accident.

Which of these relates as a factor in her response to stress? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. the nature of her personality

B. presence of social support

C. the severity of the trauma

D. the nature of her childhood experiences

B. presence of social support

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Mausam and their partner, Karthik, were held in captivity for years, and while Mausam survived, Karthik did not. As a result, Mausam developed PTSD. They feel that Karthik should have been the one to survive, and feel ashamed that they did instead.

Which symptom of acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder does this represent? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. reexperiencing the traumatic event

B. avoidance

C. reduced responsiveness and dissociation

D. increased anger, negative emotions, and guilt

D. increased anger, negative emotions, and guilt

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Carly has posttraumatic stress disorder but refuses to talk about it.

They are experiencing: (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. the traumatic event.

B. avoidance.

C. reduced responsiveness and dissociation.

D. increased arousal, negative emotions, and guilt

B. avoidance.

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Which three brain structures play particularly key roles in posttraumatic stress disorder? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. the medulla, insula, and hippocampus

B. the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and hippocampus

C. the insula, corpus callosum, and hypothalamus

D. the hypothalamus, parietal lobe, and amygdala

B. the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and hippocampus

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In which groups is depersonalization disorder LEAST common? (Posttraumatic Stress Disorder)

A. adolescents and young adults

B. adolescents and adults between 40 and 60

C. young adults and adults between 40 and 60

D. adults between 40 and 60 and adults over 60

D. adults between 40 and 60 and adults over 60