p1 EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam 2

The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is called:

a. duty to act

b. scope of practice

c. advanced directives

d. good samaritan laws

b. scope of practice

Legislation that governs the skills and medical interventions that may be performed by the EMT is:

a. standardized (uniform) throughout the country

b. different from state to state

c. standardized for regions within a state

d. governed by the US Department of Transportation

b. different from state to state

When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this is considered a(n)_______ of the EMT.

a. advanced directive

b. protocol

c. ethical responsibility

d. legal responsibility

c. ethical responsibility

Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or action by an EMT?

a. child and mentally incompetent adult

b. implied

c. applied

d. expressed

c. applied

When you informed the adult patient of the procedures were about to perform and its associated risks, you are asking for his or her:

a. expressed consent

b. negligence

c. implied

d. applied

a. expressed consent

You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the stairwell. Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient would approve the EMT's life-saving interventions is called:

a. expressed

b. negligence

c. implied

d. applied

c. implied

Your record of a patient's refusal of medical care (aid) or transport should include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal

b. documenting the steps you took

c. signing of the form by the medical director

d. obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature

c. signing of the form by the medical director

Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital agains his or her will may result in _______ charges against the EMT.

a. abandonment

b. assault and battery

c. implied consent

d. negligence

b. assault and battery

Which of the following is an action you should not take if a patient refuses care?

a. leave phone stickers with emergency numbers

b. recommend that a relative call the family physician to report the incident

c. tell the patient to call his or her family physician if the problem reoccurs

d. call a relative or neighbor who can stay with the patient

b. recommend that a relative call the family physician to report the incident

Another name for a DNR order is:

a. deviated nervous response

b. duty not to react

c. refusal of treatment

d. advanced directive

d. advanced directive

There are varying degrees of DNR orders, expressed through a variety of detailed instructions that may be part of the order such as:

a. allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed

b. allowing comfort-care measures such as intravenous feeding

c. disallowing the use of long-term life-support measures

d. specify that only five minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted

a. allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed

In a hospital, long-term life support and comfort care measures would consist of intravenous feeding and:

a. routine inoculations

b. the use of a respirator

c. infection control by the healthcare providers

d. hourly patient documentation

b. the use of a respirator

If an EMT with a duty to act fails to provide the standard of care, and if this failure causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of:

a. res ipsa loquitur

b. negligence

c. abandonment

d. assault

b. negligence

Leaving a patient on the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without giving report with a healthcare professional is an example of:

a. liability infraction

b. battery

c. abandonment

d. breach of duty

c. abandonment

The EMT should not discuss information about the patient except to relate pertinent information to the physician at the ED. Information considered confidential includes:

a. patient history gained through the interview

b. assessment findings

c. treatment rendered

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

The EMT can release confidential patient information in all of the following circumstances EXCEPT to:

a. inform other health care professionals who need to know information to continue care

b. report incidents required by state law, such as rape or abuse

c. comply with the legal subpoena

d. protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision

d. protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision

A medical identification device that indicates serious patient medical conditions, allergies, and/or medications they are currently prescribed comes in the form of each of the following except:

a. bracelets

b. necklaces

c. cards

d. patches

d. patches

You responded to a high-speed collision involving a motorcycle and automobile. The 22-year-old male cyclist has a severe head injury and is not likely to live through the evening. When treating this critical patient, who happens to have an organ donor card, the EMT should:

a. transport without delay and document a DNR

b. treat the patient with the same care as any other patient and inform the ED physician

c. withhold oxygen therapy from the patient to keep the organ hypoxic

d. all of the above

b. treat the patient with the same care as any other patient and inform the ED physician

You are at the scene of a home invasion where the homeowner was shot to death by the perpetrators. At this crime scene, you should:

a. avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care requires it

b. immediately remove the patient from the scene

c. move all obstacles from around the patient to make more room to work

d. search the house for clues to find the cause of the crime

a. avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care requires it

Commonly required reporting situations include all the following EXCEPT:

a. child and elder abuse

b. crimes in public places

c. sexual assault

d. domestic abuse

b. crimes in public places

The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the:

a. ethical dilemma

b. national curriculum

c. scope of practice

d. regional protocol

c. scope of practice

The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical information is the:

a. NHTSA

b. ANSI

c. HIPPA

d. OSHA

c. HIPPA

You were called to the scene of an incident where a 21-year-old male was knocked unconscious in a bar fight. Upon arrival, the patient is awake and has a broken nose but no life threats. He admits to drinking six beers in the last hour. He wants to refuse medical attention. Why should you discourage a refusal?

a. he is not legally old enough to consent

b. he may not be mentally competent at this time

c. he is unable to actually sign the release

d. the patient may die from a broken nose

b. he may not be mentally competent at this time

You are on the scene of a call where a patient barricaded himself and his wife in their home and is threatening to do harm. The police have been at the scene for hours and, after the wife escaped, they rushed in. It is now your responsibility to transport this now-restrained patient to the local ED. What should be your highest priority?

a. monitoring the patient's mental status and vital signs

b. making sure your documentation shows you did not apply the handcuffs

c. restraining the patient so he is not able to move

d. explaining to the patient that he no longer has any rights to refuse care

a. monitoring the patient's mental status and vital signs

The scene size up is the first part of the patient assessment process. it begins as you approach the scene, firstly surveying it to determine:

a. if there are any threats to your safety

b. the number of injured

c. personal safety of all those involved in the call

d. the mechanism of injury

a. if there are any threats to your safety

Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size up?

a. it takes place as you are approaching the scene

b. it is replaced by patient care once you arrive at the scene

c. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process

d. it continues throughout the call

d. it continues throughout the call

If you arrive at a collision scene where there are police, fire vehicles, and other ambulances already present, you should:

a. immediately begin patient care

b. conduct your own scene size up

c. ensure that no bystanders are injured

d. all of the above

b. conduct your own scene size up

Which of the following is not an appropriate action when you near the scene of a traffic collision?

a. look and listen for other EMS units as you near intersections

b. look for signs of collision-related power outages

c. observe traffic flow to anticipate blockage of the scene

d. attempt to park your vehicle downhill from the scene

d. attempt to park your vehicle downhill from the scene

When you are in sight of the collision scene, you should watch for the signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because:

a. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons b. the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge

c. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders

d. they are considered the medical care experts on the scene

a. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons

When there are no apparent hazards, consider the danger zone to extend at least ______ feet in all directions from the wreckage.

a. 25

b. 50

c. 100 d

D. 200

b. 50

When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at least______ feet in all directions.

a. 25

b. 50

c. 100

d. 200

c. 100

It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size up. Your scene size up should identify:

a. the potential for a violent situation

b. the name and amount of toxic substances

c. the number of patients and their diagnoses

d. all of the above

a. the potential for a violent situation

The EMT's Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size up may include all the following except:

a. eye protection

b. disposable gloves

c. face mask or eye shield

d. nonrebreather mask

d. nonrebreather mask

Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of the Standard Precautions is to:

a. always wear all protective clothing

b. always have personal protective equipment readily available

c. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer

d. determine which body fluids are a danger to the EMT

b. always have personal protective equipment readily available

Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and joints are usually associated with:

a. fights and drug usage

b. falls and vehicle collisions

c. fires and explosions

d. bullet wounds

b. falls and vehicle collisions

Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in:

a. immobilizing the patient's spine

b. determining which Standard Precautions to use

c. Predicting various injury patterns

d. All of the above

c. Predicting various injury patterns

The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, states that:

a. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight

b. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss

c. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force

d. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury

c. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force

You are treating a patient who was involved in a head on collision. She was the unrestrained driver who took the "up and over" pathway. To which part of her body would she have most likely sustained injuries?

a. skull

b. fibula

c. knees

d. femur

a. skull

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered a MOI for a patient who was involved in a head-on collision in which they were unrestrained and took the "up and over" pathway?

a. steering wheel

b. windshield

c. Brake pedal

d. dashboard

c. Brake pedal

Which type of collision is most serious when the occupant is not restrained because it has the potential for multiple impacts?

a. side impact

b. rear end impact

c. head-on, up and over

d. roll-over

d. roll-over

You are on the scene of a car crash. Your patient has stable vital signs and is complaint of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of the car and did not have his seatbelt on. What type of collision did he most likely experience?

a. head- on, up and over

b. rear end

c. head-on, down and under

d. rotational impact

c. head-on, down and under

You are walking around a vehicle that was involved in a collision. All of the following are examples of MOI except a:

a. patient who fell 3 times her height

b. spiderweb crack in the windshield

c. broken steering column in a collision

d. flat rear tire

d. flat rear tire

A severe fall for an adult is:

a. over 20 feet

b. over 15 feet

c. less than 10 feet

d. always fatal

a. over 20 feet

You are evaluating a patient who sustained a penetrating injury. The injury is usually limited to the penetrated area in a _______ injury.

a. low velocity

b. medium velocity

c. high velocity

d. super velocity

a. low velocity

The pressure wave around the bullet's track through the body is called:

a. exsanguination

b. gas penetration

c. cavitation

d. pressure damage

c. cavitation

You are evaluating a patient who sustained an injury cased by a blow that hit the body but did not penetrate the skin. This type of injury is called a(n):

a. inertia trauma

b. cavitation

c. blunt force trauma

d. rotational impact

c. blunt force trauma

In which of the following situations would it be necessary for you and your partner to call for additional assistance?

a. You are treating a patient with flulike symptoms and the toddler also has similar symptoms

b. your patient is a 350 pound male who fell down the stairs and has a broken leg

c. you are treating a patient with a deep laceration in his right forearm

d. your patient loses consciousness while you are carrying her to the engines

b. your patient is a 350 pound male who fell down the stairs and has a broken leg

While in the living room of a private home treating a patient for nausea, headache, and general body weakness, your eyes begin to tear. Three family members have the same symptoms. You should immediately:

a. evacuate all people from the building

b. call for three additional ambulances

c. notify police

d. begin to flush out everyone's eyes

a. evacuate all people from the building

If the number of patients is more than the responding you can effectively handle, the EMT should:

a. involve bystanders in care of injured

b. call for additional EMS resources immediately

c. advise medical direction that assistance is needed

d. all of the above

b. call for additional EMS resources immediately

When arriving at the scene of a collision, the EMT should:

a. start placing flares across the road

b. don head protection, bunker coat, and an ANSI- approved reflective vest

c. immediately request additional units

d. contact medical direction on the radio

b. don head protection, bunker coat, and an ANSI- approved reflective vest

A significant danger faced by the EMT is violence. On arriving at the scene of a private home, you hear screaming from inside; there are beer cans piled up on the front porch; and, as you knock on the door, it suddenly gets very quiet inside. What should you do next?

a. enter the residence and search for weapons

b. contact the dispatcher to inquire if they have ever had violence at this location

c. retreat to a safe area and ask the police to secure the scene

d. yell into the house that you are EMS and not the police

c. retreat to a safe area and ask the police to secure the scene

You arrived on the scene of a large fire. If the personnel at the scene are using the incident command/ management system, you should:

a. follow the instructions of the person in charge

b. drive past the scene and park off the road

c. transport the first patient you come across

d. tag all the patients

a. follow the instructions of the person in charge

Which of the following steps is not part of the primary assessment of a responsive patient with a medical problem?

a. assess the patient's mental status

b. assess the adequacy of breathing

c. determine the patient's priority

d. obtain the patient's blood pressure

d. obtain the patient's blood pressure

The general impression is an evaluation of all the following except:

a. the patient's chief complaint

b. appearance

c. the environment

d. past medical history

d. past medical history

You are assessing a patient and making observations about the scene. Finding drug-use paraphernalia at the scene of an emergency is an example of:

a. an indication of the patient's chief complaint

b. an environmental part of the general impression

c. an assessment of the scene safety

d. a medical history of drug addiction

b. an environmental part of the general impression

When the patient tells you, in his own words, why he requested that an ambulance be called, this is referred to as the:

a. general impression

b. chief complaint

c. primary assessment

d. secondary assessment

b. chief complaint

During the general impression, the EMT should:

a. look

b. listen

c. smell

d. do all of these

d. do all of these

You are assessing a patient who fell off his bike and landed on his right shoulder. First you determine his mental status using AVPU. What does the "A" stand for?

a. action

b. airway

c. assess

d. alert

d. alert

You have determined that your patient is a V as far as mental status goes. What does the "V" stand for?

a. violent

b. very painful

c. verbal

d. venous

c. verbal

You are concerned because your patient may have a depressed mental status. What does the "P" stand for in AVPU?

a. priority

b. painful

c. position d

d. patient

b. painful

One major difference between the primary assessment of a responsive trauma patient and the primary assessment of an unresponsive trauma patient is:

a. the assessment is done more quickly on the responsive patient

b. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport

c. there is no difference between the two assessments

d. a jaw thrust maneuver should always be used on the responsive patient

b. the unresponsive patient is a higher priority for immediate transport

You are assessing a patient who was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. She is not alert and her breathing rate is slower than 8 per minutes. As the EMT in charge you should:

a. give high concentration oxygen via a nonreabreather mask

b. evaluate the patient's circulation and treat for shock

c. suction the patient and perform rescue breathing

d. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100% oxygen

d. provide positive pressure ventilations with 100% oxygen

During your primary assessment of a patient who is alert and has a breathing rate the is greater than 24 breaths per minutes, you should provide the patient with:

a. positive pressure ventilations with 100% oxygen

b. high concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask

c. low concentration oxygen via bag valve mask

d. medium concentration oxygen via nasal

b. high concentration oxygen via nonrebreather mask

In primary assessment, the circulation assessment includes evaluating all the following except:

a. pulse

b. skin

c. severity of bleeding

d. blood pressure

d. blood pressure

If the patient's skin is warm, dry, and normal color, it indicates:

a. sunburn

b. heat exposure

c. alcohol abuse

d. good circulation

d. good circulation

Your patient has no-life threatening external hemorrhage but has skin that is cool, pale, and moist. This could be an indication of:

a. increased perfusion

b. high blood pressure

c. poor circulation

d. cold exposure

c. poor circulation

To evaluate skin color in a dark-skinned patient, the EMT should also:

a. evaluate the tissues of the lips and nail beds

b. evaluate the tissues of the heels of the feet

c. check the pupils of the eyes

d. do all of the above

a. evaluate the tissues of the lips and nail beds

When assessing the circulation during the primary assessment, the EMT should check for and control severe bleeding. This is important to do because:

a. open wounds can become infected

b. it may lead to long-term complications

c. a patient can bleed to death in minutes

d. the blood pressure may drop over time

c. a patient can bleed to death in minutes

When a life threat is observed in the primary assessment, the EMT should:

a. complete the assessment, then go back and treat

b. treat immediately

c. determine the patient's priority, then treat

d. package the patient for transport

b. treat immediately

High priority conditions include:

a. poor general impression

b. unresponsiveness

c. shock

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

All of the following would be considered high priority conditions except:

a. difficulty breathing

b. responsive but not following commands

c. an uncomplicated childbirth

d. chest pain with systolic blood pressure less than 100

c. an uncomplicated childbirth

During the primary assessment of an alert adult medical patient with a chief complaint of chest pain, you note that the breathing rate is 28 and the patient's lips are bluish. You should consider:

a. oxygen by nasal cannula

b. providing bag valve mask ventilations

c. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask

d. use paper bag to slow down the rate

c. administering oxygen by nonrebreather mask

In the adult trauma patient, why is the capillary refill no longer used to assess the circulation?

a. It is not a good indicator of perfusion

b. only children have capillary refill

c. it is still an important step

d. because EMTs have difficulty remembering to use it

a. It is not a good indicator of perfusion

The steps of the primary assessment:

a. are designed to be followed in order but can be patient dependent

b. depend on the baseline vital signs

c. must be followed in order

d. depend on the age and sex of the patient

a. are designed to be followed in order but can be patient dependent

When doing an assessment on a patient who is apparently lifeless, the approach is adapted to include:

a. the pulse check for at least 20 seconds

b. the C-A-B approach per AHA guidelines

c. the routine A-B-C approach per AHA guidelines

d. non of these are appropriate

b. the C-A-B approach per AHA guidelines

Updated guidelines on administering oxygen, as explained in your textbook, would require which of these conditions to provide oxygen by NRB or BVM?

a. hypoxia

b. respiratory distress

c. threat to airway

d. all of the above conditions

d. all of the above conditions

The study of drugs, their sources, and their effects is called:

a. anatomy

b. physiology

c. medicinology

d. pharmacology

d. pharmacology

Medications that are routinely carried on the EMT-level EMS unit are:

a. aspirin, oral glucose, and oxygen

b. oxygen and nitroglycerin

c. epinephrine and prescribed inhalers

d. all of the above

a. aspirin, oral glucose, and oxygen

Aspirin is administered by the EMT in the field to:

a. treat headaches

b. dilate the coronary arteries

c. help prevent initial or further clot formation

d. eliminate the pain from a serious injury

c. help prevent initial or further clot formation

When might the administration of aspirin be contraindicated?

a. when there is no water available

b. if the patient has a history of GI bleeding

c. if the patient may be having a heart attack

d. absorption of poisons

b. if the patient has a history of GI bleeding

You are treating a patient who has diabetes and has an altered mental status. He has a gag reflex, so oral glucose is your treatment. This is given between the patient's cheek and gum using a tongue depressor because:

a. this method allows slow swallowing and absorption into the bloodstream

b. it will not be aspirated if the patient suddenly becomes unconscious

c. this area will cause the patient to regurgitate the stomach's contents

d. it will assist in dilating the coronary vessels as much as possible.

a. this method allows slow swallowing and absorption into the bloodstream

As an important part in history taking, you will determine if the patient is taking any specific medications. Examples of medications a patient may have in his or her possession and that the EMT may assist the patient in taking under the appropriate circumstances are:

a. glucose injections and anticonvulsants

b.home oxygen, antihypertensive, and anti-inflammatory medications

c. epinephrine autoinjector, bronchodilator, nitroglycerin, and aspirin

d. insulin, antihypertensive medications, and anticonvulsant medications

c. epinephrine autoinjector, bronchodilator, nitroglycerin, and aspirin

Your patient is a 52-year-old female who states that she has a long history of asthma and chronic bronchitis. it would not be unusual for her to carry_____ in her purse

a. nitroglycerin

b. an epinephrine autoinjector

c. a bronchodilator

d. aspirin

c. a bronchodilator

Your 62-year-old patient has a history of cardiac problems and is prescribed nitro. The drug is used to _____ vessels.

a. dilate the peripheral

b. constrict the peripheral

c. dilate the coronary

d. constrict the coronary

c. dilate the coronary

The comprehensive government publication listing all drugs in the U.S. is called the

a. Physician's Desk Reference

b. Hazmat Guidebook

c. U.S. Pharmacopoeia

d. National Medicine Guidebook

c. U.S. Pharmacopoeia

The name that a manufacturer uses in marketing and patent applications of a drug is called the_______ name.

a. generic

b. trade

c. official

d. original

b. trade

The patient tells you that he is not supposed to take a specific medication when his blood pressure is low or he feels dizzy. A circumstance in which a drug should not be used because it may cause harm to the patient or offer no effect in improving the patient's condition or illness is called a(n):

a. indication

b. side effect

c. adverse reaction

d. contraindication

d. contraindication

You are administering a medication for a specific purpose according to your treatment protocols. An action of a drug that is other than the desired action is called a(n):

a. side effect

b. overdose

c. contraindication

d. systemic effect

a. side effect

Part of the treatment of a seriously ill patient will involve administration of a drug. Prior to administering the medication, you must know all the following except:

a. the route of administration

b. proper dosage

c. action the medication will take

d. both the generic and chemical names

d. both the generic and chemical names

You are treating a patient who is under a doctor's care for chronic pain and is taking medication for his condition. Drugs prescribed for pain relief are called:

a. antidysrhythmics

b. analgesics

c. anticonvulsants

d. antihypertensives

b. analgesics

When inquiring about the history of a suspected cardiac patient, the patient reveals that he is also taking medication to control his hypertension. Drugs prescribed to reduce high blood pressure are called:

a. antidysrhythmics

b. analgesics

c. anticonvulsants

d. antihypertensives

d. antihypertensives

Your patient tells you that she is taking a medication to control her irregular heartbeat. Which class of drugs would she be prescribed?

a. anti diabetics

b. bronchodilators

c. antiarrhythmics

d. anticonvulsants

c. antiarrhythmics

Upon interviewing an asthmatic patient, you find that she is taking a medication for her disease. Drugs prescribed to relax the smooth muscles of the bronchial tubes are called:

a. bronchospasm

b. bronchodilators

c. anticonvulsants

d. bronchoconstrictors

b. bronchodilators

When a patient is administered tiny aerosol particles to treat a disease, such as asthma, this is considered the _____ route of administration.

a. intravenous

b. sublingual

c. inhaled

d. oral

c. inhaled

Under what circumstances might you administer a medication such as atropine to yourself and your partner?

a. exposure to a gas leak at a factory

b. exposure to nerve gas in a terrorist attack

c. exposure to a patient with a communicable disease

d. exposure to an extraterrestrial alien being

b. exposure to nerve gas in a terrorist attack

Which of the following effects does naloxone exert on the body?

a. reverses respiratory failure caused by narcotics

b. enhances respiratory distress in drug users

c. causes rapid return to consciousness with no possibility of relapse to unconscious state

d. it has no effect at all on someone who overdoses on heroin

a. reverses respiratory failure caused by narcotics

Your patient is an alert 58-year-old male who is complaining of chest pain. The components of the secondary assessment for a responsive medical patient include all of the following except:

a. history of present illness

b. SAMPLE history

c. baseline vital signs

d. rapid trauma exam

d. rapid trauma exam

Many memory aids are used during the assessment process. OPQRST is a memory aid to help the EMT remember the:

a. Questions to ask about the past medical history

b. Questions that expand on the history of the present illness

c. Status of the patient's condition

d. Levels of the patient's mental status

b. Questions that expand on the history of the present illness

When you ask a 65-year-old woman with chest pain, "Can you think of anything that might have triggered or caused this pain?" You are questioning her about the __________ of her pain.

a. onset

b. provocation

c. quality

d radiation

b. provocation

When you ask a male patient with back pain, "How bad is the pain?" You are questioning him about:

a. quality

b. severity

c. time

d. radiation

b. severity