The Big One

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Basically the whole imaging class in one flashcard set.

Last updated 12:32 AM on 8/4/26
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1
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On what factors are imaging decisions for the cervical spine based?

Trauma MOI and whether there is neurological involvement

2
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According to the Canadian C Spine Rule, at what age is imaging indicated regardless of other factors?

Older than 6565

3
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What are the four components of the Canadian C Spine Rule?

Older than 6565, traumatic MOI, extremity paresthesia, and ability to rotate 4545 degrees left or right

4
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Which midline location must be free of tenderness to meet the Nexus Low Risk Rule?

Posterior midline

5
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List the five criteria of the Nexus Low Risk Rule.

No tenderness of posterior midline, no focal neurologic deficit, normal level of alertness, no evidence of intoxication, and no painful distracting injury

6
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Which imaging modality is considered best for viewing cervical spine fractures?

Multi-Detector CT

7
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What is the purpose of the Swimmer’s View in cervical imaging?

Better visualization of the cervicothoracic junction

8
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What is the typical mechanism of injury for Odontoid Fractures in young people?

High impact trauma or MVA

9
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What is the typical cause of Odontoid Fractures in old people?

Low energy fall

10
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Which Odontoid fracture type is most common?

Type 22

11
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Describe the fracture line of a Type 2 Odontoid fracture.

A perfect horizontal break at the bottom of the odontoid

12
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Type 2 Odontoid fractures often lead to what type of weakening?

Osteoporotic weakening

13
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What is associated with Odontoid fractures in terms of patient outlook?

High morbidity and mortality

14
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What are the strongest indicators of Odontoid Fracture in older adults?

Midline tenderness, focal neurological deficit, and indicators of trauma on the head or face

15
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What factor strongly predicts survival versus mortality within the 1st1^{st} year after a type 2 odontoid fracture?

Frailty of older adults

16
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Contrast the uses of CT and MRI in cervical spine evaluation.

CT is best for bony elements, while MRI is best for neural and soft tissues

17
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Is it common for patients with Atlanto-Axial Subluxation (AAS) to be asymptomatic?

Yes, many are asymptomatic for years

18
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What is the maximum normal measurement for the Anterior Atlanto-Dens interval?

3mm3 mm

19
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Which systemic condition is associated with increased cervical instability?

Rheumatoid Arthritis

20
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How much higher is the mortality rate for patients with AAS compared to those without?

Up to 8×8 \times higher

21
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What must be checked during a scan exam for suspected cervical instability?

Neurological tests

22
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What is the recommendation regarding the Sharp Purser test in the notes?

Don't do it

23
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Which imaging modality is best to visualize cord compromise in AAS?

MRI

24
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What imaging technique can be used to see osseous displacement in the cervical spine?

Flexion-extension radiographs

25
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How do Biologics and DMARDs affect cervical instability?

They can help prevent new instability lesions

26
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Why does taking DMARDs paradoxically correlate with a risk of instability?

It indicates the disease process has become severe

27
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List five risk factors for Rheumatoid Subluxation.

Female, low bone mass density, young at diagnosis, steroid therapy, and previous joint surgery

28
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What severe condition may result from cervical subluxation?

Basilar invagination

29
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List six conditions that Basilar Invagination may accompany.

Chiara Malformation, Down Syndrome, Klippel Feil Syndrome, Osteogenesis Imperfecta, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Paget’s Disease

30
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What is the prognosis for basilar invagination?

Poor prognosis

31
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Which group of patients is at high risk for cervical instability?

Patients with connective tissue disorders

32
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What are the primary indicators of cervical subluxation?

Neck pain accompanied with non-mechanical symptoms suggestive of neurological involvement

33
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List five neurological symptoms suggesting cervical subluxation involvement.

Paresthesia, gait difficulty, vertigo, diplopia, and dysphagia

34
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Define Lhermette’s Sign.

An electrical shock sensation with cervical flexion

35
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What is the diagnostic utility of Flexion-Extension view radiographs in the context of management?

They are not that great and don’t change management approach

36
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Which modality is best for identifying ligamentous injury in the C-spine?

MRI

37
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List six degenerative changes MRI will find in the cervical spine.

Disk height loss, loss of signal from desiccation, annular fissures, osteophytes, end plate changes, and herniations

38
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Why is loss of IV disc signal on MRI considered part of the natural course?

They will lose signal no matter what as part of aging

39
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At which levels is Z joint degeneration most common in the C-spine?

C2 through C5

40
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What does loss of paraspinal musculature in the C-Spine indicate?

Indicative of poor outcomes over the course of life

41
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Define Klippel-Feil Syndrome.

Congenital fusion of one or more segments

42
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At which levels is Klippel-Feil syndrome most common?

C2 through C5

43
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What activity should Klippel-Feil patients avoid?

Contact sports

44
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What symptoms are associated with the multi-level involvement of Klippel-Feil?

Dizziness and balance issues

45
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At what levels does cervical radiculopathy most commonly occur?

C5 through C7

46
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What is the usual origin of cervical radiculopathy?

Bony origin

47
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What is the modality of choice for diagnosing cervical radiculopathy?

MRI

48
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List the four tests in the Clinical Prediction Rule for cervical radiculopathy.

Upper Limb Tension Tests, Ipsilateral Rotation to 6060 degrees, Reduction of Symptoms with Traction, and Spurling’s Test

49
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In which dermatomes does sensory loss in the upper extremities often occur?

C6 and C7 dermatomes

50
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What muscular change is common post-radiculopathy?

Decrease in multifidus cross sectional area

51
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Which Upper Limb Tension Test offers the highest diagnostic value?

Median Nerve ULTT

52
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What are the common demographics for cervical myelopathy?

Men more than women, usually around 6464 years old

53
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At which levels does cervical myelopathy usually occur?

C5 and C6

54
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List five neural involvement signs seen during a scan exam for myelopathy.

Motor deficit, thenar atrophy, spasticity, impaired gait, and myoclonus

55
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How does step pattern change if cervical spinal cord compression progresses to higher severity?

Shorter, slower steps

56
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What is the 15s Grip and Release test used to evaluate?

Ability to open/close the hand fast, often impaired in cervical myelopathy

57
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Define the Finger Escape Test.

Abduction or flexion when trying to sustain finger extension and adduction

58
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What reflex status is common in cervical myelopathy patients?

Hyperreflexia

59
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Besides the cord, where else have changes been shown to occur in cervical myelopathy?

Motor areas of the brain

60
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What is cervical spine stenosis often caused by?

Osteophytosis at the disc-vertebra junction

61
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List five Myelopathic Tests used in cervical stenosis assessment.

Hoffman’s Reflex, Babinski, Clonus, DTRs/MSRs, and Inverted Supinator

62
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What do inverted neurological responses at muscles suggest?

Central involvement

63
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Define the Tromner Sign.

Flicking of the 3rd3^{rd} DIP into extension

64
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What does Tromner Sign suggest?

Central involvement

65
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Contrast the value of CT Myelography and MRI for cervical stenosis.

CT shows interface of neural elements via contrast; MRI shows signal of the cord and CSF

66
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Which two ligaments may see buckling in cervical stenosis?

Ligamentum flavum and posterior longitudinal ligament

67
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What can Electrophysiologic testing help determine when used with MRI?

Function of neural tissues

68
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In which populations is Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL) Ossification more prevalent?

Asian populations and those with Ankylosing Spondylitis

69
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PLL ossification increases the risk of what condition?

Cervical myelopathy

70
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What is the most common presentation of PLL ossification?

Cervical myelopathy

71
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On which modality is PLL ossification best demonstrated?

MRI

72
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Is PLL ossification more common in men or women?

Men

73
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What change is seen on MRI in ligamentous structures post-whiplash injury?

Higher signal intensity

74
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Which modality is best for ligamentous visualization after whiplash?

MRI

75
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What muscular changes occur in the neck following Whiplash Associated Disorders (WAD)?

Increased fatty infiltrate of posterior neck musculature and increased CSA of anterior neck musculature

76
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How does increased fatty infiltration affect WAD outcomes?

Leads to lower functional scores

77
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Patients with Ankylosing Spondylitis are at increased risk for what in the C-spine?

Instability and lower C-spine fractures

78
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What is Os Odontium?

Anatomical variant of an extra bony fragment at the C2 spinous process

79
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Define Adjacent Segment Disease.

Complication following spinal fusion

80
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With which spinal fusion level does Adjacent Segment Disease most commonly occur?

C5-6 fusion

81
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On what modality is Adjacent Segment Disease demonstrated?

Radiographs

82
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Where does a Cervical Rib typically arise from?

The C7 transverse process

83
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A Cervical Rib is a risk factor for which two conditions?

Thoracic outlet syndromes (TOS) and brachial plexus injuries

84
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Which modality is best for TOS surgical planning and diagnosis?

MRI

85
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Which two modalities can be used to diagnose a Pancoast Tumor?

CT or MRI

86
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Describe the radiographic appearance of a Pancoast Tumor.

Lack of pulmonary air and shadow at the apex of the lung; atypical radio-opacity

87
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How does a Pancoast Tumor usually present?

Shoulder pain and medial scapular pain

88
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What is the typical demographic for a Pancoast Tumor?

~5050-year-old men with a smoking history

89
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Does a Pancoast Tumor present with typical radicular symptoms?

No; Spurling’s won’t relieve symptoms, but they will have positive neurological symptoms

90
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Define Horner’s Syndrome symptoms in the context of Pancoast Tumor.

Drooping eye and lack of sweat on one side of the face

91
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List four signs that increase suspicion of Pancoast Tumor.

Constant severe pain, loss of sleep, history of smoking, and reduced function

92
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What is the number one risk factor for Pancoast Tumor?

Smoking

93
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Which shoulder radiographic views best show the relationship of the humeral head and glenoid?

Axillary View and Westpoint View

94
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What is always the recommended first line of imaging for the shoulder?

Radiographs

95
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What is the value of Ultrasound in shoulder pathology?

Diagnostic value for rotator cuff pathology, equivalent to MRI

96
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Define the Buford Complex.

Cord-like medial glenohumeral ligament originating directly from the superior labrum

97
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What is a Sublabral Foramen?

A sulcus between the anterosuperior portion of the labrum and the glenoid articular cartilage

98
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What is an Os Acromial?

Incidental finding on radiographs that may contribute to impingement

99
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What is the typical demographic for Proximal Humerus Fractures?

Older women with osteoporosis and falls

100
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When is MRI used for a Proximal Humerus Fracture?

If rotator cuff integrity is in question