Radiologic Technologist BOARD review

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58 Terms

1

Minimizing patient exposure can be accomplished by using all of the following EXCEPT:
A) a single-phase generator.
B) added tube filtration.
C) beam restriction.
D) low mAs settings.

A
Single-phase generators require more exposure than 3-phase or high-frequency generators because of
their decreased x-ray production efficiency.

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2

________ is the local processing function of renumbering pixel values for an entire image domain.
A) The look-up table (LUT)
B) The histogram
C) Equalization
D) Windowing

D
Windowing renumbers pixel values across the image domain.

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3

The ________ detector consists of a thin-film transistor array.
A) flat-panel
B) photostimulable phosphor plate (PSP)
C) charge coupled device (CCD)
D) complementary metal-oxide semidonductor (CMOS)

A
Both indirect and direct flat panel detectors contain a thin-film transistor array. The TFT is involved in
charge readout when voltage is applied to the pixels.

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4

All of the following are regarded as special considerations when establishing technique charts EXCEPT:
A) radiographer skill.
B) patient age.
C) casts.
D) contrast media.

A

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5

A technologist notices that a co-worker selects exposure factors for a patient's examination that are much
higher than indicated by department protocol or technique charts. The technologist should:
A) defer to a more senior technologist's experience and do not say anything.
B) go immediately to the department supervisor and suggest an investigation.
C) talk to the technologist about why those exposure factors were chosen and express concern about overexposing the
patient.
D) express concern to other technologists in the department.

C

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6

Which of the following is FALSE about the laboratory value GFR?
A) GFR stands for glomerular filtration rate.
B) GFR is calculated from the results of a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test.
C) GFR estimates how much blood passes through the glomeruli of the kidney.
D) GFR is a measure of kidney function and estimation of degree of kidney disease.

B

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7

Until a photostimulable phosphor plate (PSP) is processed, electrons freed upon irradiation are stored in
the:
A) valence band.
B) photodetector.
C) conduction band.
D) conductive layer.

C

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8

A 55-year-old woman is in the radiology department for a barium enema. She is anxious about the
examination and says that she heard it is "painful and horrible." The technologist should communicate
with the patient by: 1. using medical and technical terminology when explaining the procedure. 2.
keeping explanations simple and truthful. 3. using eye contact and an empathetic tone when explaining
the procedure.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3

C

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9

What type of contrast medium dissociates into 2 molecular particles in water?
A) nonionic agents
B) hydroxyl groups
C) amine groups
D) ionic agents

D

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10

The ________ generator component converts DC current to high-frequency AC.
A) capacitor
B) rectifier
C) transformer
D) inverter

D

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11

Increasing the kVp from 60 to 68 will result in:
A) increased energy of characteristic photons.
B) an increase in the number of characteristic photons.
C) increased quantity of bremsstrahlung photons.
D) a leftward shift of the emission spectrum.

C
At 68 kVp, no characteristic x-rays are produced because there is insufficient energy to break the k-shell
binding energy of a tungsten atom. Therefore, only an increase in the quantity of bremsstrahlung x-rays
will occur. Increasing kVp causes the emission spectrum to shift to the right, toward the high-energy side

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12

Blood vessels, the ureters, nerves, and lymphatic vessels enter and exit the kidney through the:
A) renal cortex.
B) renal corpuscle.
C) hilum.
D) renal pelvis.

C

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13

Of the following, a whole-body radiation exposure of 2 Gy over a period of ________ would be MOST
hazardous to an individual.
A) 10 seconds
B) 10 hours
C) 10 days
D) 10 weeks

A

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14

Which of the following medications should be withheld from patients who have diabetes on the day of
their iodinated contrast study and for at least 48 hours afterward to avoid the potential development of
lactic acidosis?
A) furesomide (Lasix)
B) insulin
C) metformin
D) diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl)

C

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15

Personnel cumulative radiation monitoring is NOT performed with a(n):
A) film badge.
B) thermoluminescent dosimeter badge.
C) optically stimulated luminescence badge.
D) pocket ion chamber.

D

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16

An acceptable image is produced using a particular set of exposure parameters. The image is repeated
using the air-gap technique with all other factors remaining constant. Given this scenario, all of the
following will decrease EXCEPT:
A) sharpness.
B) receptor exposure.
C) contrast.
D) spatial resolution.

C
The air-gap technique increases the object-to-image distance (OID). Increasing the OID increases
contrast because less scatter reaches the receptor. Less scatter to the receptor also means that receptor
exposure decreases. Additionally, when the OID is increased, spatial resolution (sharpness) decreases.

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17

All of the following are techniques and procedures designed to reduce occupational dose during
fluoroscopy, EXCEPT:
A) intermittent activation of views.
B) optimizing dose rates using AEC.
C) remote-controlled fluoroscopy.
D) high-level-control fluoroscopy.

D
High-level-control fluoroscopy (HLCF) is used in interventional procedures

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18

On a PA axial projection of the mandibular rami, the central ray is angled 20° in a _________ direction
and should exit the ________.
A) caudal; acanthion
B) cephalic; acanthion
C) caudal; mental point of the mandible
D) cephalic; mental point of the mandible

B

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19

The advantage of the dose area product (DAP) meter as a dose measuring device is:
A) it measures dose at the level of the collimator.
B) the DAP meter terminates exposure after a certain dose is reached.
C) technologists do not have to place it into the field.
D) regular calibration is required.

C

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20

While reviewing a posteroanterior (PA) chest radiograph of a 72-year-old male patient, the radiographer
notices that the image does NOT show the right heart border because the right middle lobe is
consolidated. This is described as the ________ sign.
A) silhouette
B) cardiac
C) pneumonia
D) halo

A

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21

Which of the following attributes do personnel monitoring devices include? 1. They must not be
susceptible to environmental conditions. 2. Devices are designed to record only small exposures. 3. The
device must reflect human tissue absorption characteristics.
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3

B

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22

Which of the following affect the spatial resolution of an image?
A) mAs and object-to-image distance (OID)
B) source-to-image distance (SID) and focal spot size
C) kVp and mAs
D) tube angle and kVp

B

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23

Defecography is used to measure and study the:
A) length of the transverse colon.
B) angles of the right and left colic flexures.
C) anorectal angle.
D) length of the sigmoid colon.

C

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24

The spatial resolution of a detector is controlled by the:
A) sampling frequency.
B) matrix size.
C) milliampere-seconds (mAs).
D) analog-to-digital converter (ADC).

A

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25

________ scattering is another term for classical scattering.
A) Compton
B) Coherent
C) Characteristic
D) Photoelectric

B
Coherent is also know as classical

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26

Which of the following is NOT a property of x-rays?
A) X-rays have mass.
B) X-rays can interact with matter.
C) X-rays can act like a particle.
D) X-rays are electrically neutral.

A

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27

During a barium enema exam the enema tip should be inserted in the ________ direction initially and
while the patient is ________.
A) posterior; exhaling
B) posterior; inhaling
C) anterior; exhaling
D) anterior; inhaling

C

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28

Which of the following will NOT affect the effective focal spot size?
A) filament size
B) anode angle
C) target material
D) actual focal spot size

C

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29

________ is a short-term somatic effect of radiation exposure.
A) Cataract formation
B) Skin erythema
C) Leukemia
D) Hereditary alteration

B

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30

The ___________ mode of transmission spreads pathogens through contaminated objects such as a
patient's belongings.
A) direct contact
B) endogenous
C) indirect contact
D) vector

C

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31

The greatest source of medical radiation exposure in the United States is:
A) radiography.
B) interventional fluoroscopy.
C) nuclear medicine.
D) computed tomography (CT).

D

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32

For the optimum image of the right kidney during urography, what position should a patient should be in?
A) right posterior oblique (RPO)
B) left posterior oblique (LPO)
C) lateral
D) supine

B
The patient should be in LPO for optimum imaging of the right kidney during urography. Placing the
patient in a 30 °LPO position places the right kidney parallel with the image receptor. Placing the patient
in a 30° RAO position would also accomplish this. Placing the kidney parallel to the image receptor
reduces shape distortion and improves image quality.

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33

Which of the following BEST describes the term air kerma?
A) weighted for tissue type
B) absorbed dose
C) kinetic energy transferred
D) equivalent dose

C
Air kerma is the kinetic energy transferred per unit mass of air.

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34

Decreasing the kVp will ________ receptor exposure and ________ contrast.
A) decrease; decrease
B) decrease; increase
C) increase; decrease
D) increase; increase

B

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35

The neck of the femur is angled anteriorly from the femoral body by approximately:
A) 5° to 10°.
B) 15° to 20°.
C) 30° to 40°.
D) 40° to 60°.

B

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36

The average temporal artery temperature for a patient is:
A) 97°
B) 98.6°
C) 99.5°
D) 100°

D

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37

Which of the following image artifacts will appear as an area of increased brightness? 1. nasogastric
tube. 2. Swan-Ganz catheter. 3. IV port (Port-A-Cath).
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 3
D) 1, 2, and 3

D

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38

An emergency department patient arrives in the radiology department. The patient seems stable but is
breathing rapidly. The technologist communicates this concern to the radiologist as:
A) bradypnea.
B) tachycardia.
C) bradycardia.
D) tachypnea.

D

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39

On an axiolateral oblique projection of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs), the patient's head begins in
a lateral position and is then rotated so that the midsagittal plane moves approximately 15° toward the
image receptor. The central ray is angled caudally about 15°. The TMJ of interest is closest to the image
receptor. On the image, the TMJ of interest will be projected ________ and ________ to the other TMJ.
A) superiorly; posteriorly
B) inferiorly; posteriorly
C) superiorly; anteriorly
D) inferiorly; anteriorly

A

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40

For a lateral projection of the knee, the patient's leg is flexed:
A) 5° to 10°.
B) 20° to 30°.
C) 40° to 45°
D) 90°

B

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41

The photomultiplier tube in a phosphor plate reader system converts:
A) light to electrons.
B) x-rays to electrons.
C) light to digital values.
D) x-rays to digital values.

A

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42

Which of the following statements correctly describes how and why technical factors MUST be changed
from an anteroposterior (AP) lumbar spine to an oblique lumbar spine image?
A) the abdomen becomes denser; technique must increase
B) the abdomen becomes less dense; technique must decrease
C) the abdomen becomes thicker; technique must increase
D) the abdomen becomes less thick; technique must decrease

C

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43

Patient demographics and examination information are stored with a digital radiography image in the
image's.
A) metadata.
B) radiology information system (RIS).
C) study ID.
D) modality worklist.

A

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44

The ________ of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with the heads of the ribs.
A) bodies
B) laminae
C) pedicles
D) transverse processes

A

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45

Charges separate in amorphous silicon when:
A) light interacts with the array.
B) the charge-coupled device (CCD) activates the array.
C) an electric field is applied to the array.
D) the capacitor is activated.

C

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46

________ is the primary cause of decreased spatial resolution on radiographs.
A) Failure to use a grid
B) Incorrect milliampere-seconds (mAs)
C) Patient motion
D) Improper kilovoltage peak (kVp) selection

C

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47

Which of the following is the unit of measure for display monitor luminance?
A) Cd/m2
B) mGy/s
C) Lp/mm
D) Lines/cm

A
mGy/s is a measure of exposure rate; Lp/mm is a measure of spatial resolution; Lines/cm is the unit of
measurement for grid frequency. Cd/m2 is a measure of luminance.

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48

The feature that maintains image quality at the lowest dose in fluoroscopy is abbreviated as:
A) AEC.
B) ABC.
C) AERC.
D) ATCM.

C

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49

The rotating anode target material that is responsible for helping to cool and conduct electrons through
the x-ray circuitry is comprised of how many materials from the list below? tungsten thorium rhenium
molybdenum graphite
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4

D
ALL OF THESE ARE USED EXCEPT THORIUM

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50

The need for ________ is at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A) self-actualization
B) belonging and love
C) esteem
D) physiologic safety or comfort (food, shelter, clothing)

A

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51

The atlantoaxial joint between the dens of the axis and the anterior arch of the atlas is a(n) ________
joint.
A) ellipsoidal
B) gliding
C) pivot
D) saddle

C

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52

There must be ___________ for current to flow.
A) voltage
B) a vacuum
C) resistance
D) potential capacitance

A
Also known as potential difference

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53

Which type of compensating filter is the MOST appropriate to use for an AP or AP axial projection of the
foot?
A) boomerang
B) wedge
C) trough
D) bilateral wedge

B

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54

The fluoroscopic foot switch is a:
A) positive-pressure switch.
B) negative-pressure switch.
C) toggle switch.
D) variable resistor.

A
Also known as a dead-man switch

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55

The voltage ripple of a high-frequency generator is:
A) < 1%.
B) 12%.
C) 50%.
D) 100%.

A

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56

The concept used in barrier design that describes the total beam-on time for a radiography room per
week is:
A) workload.
B) use factor.
C) weighting factor.
D) occupancy factor.

A

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57

An increase in patient exposure will result from:
A) decreasing mAs.
B) decreasing object-to-imaged distance OID.
C) increasing grid ratio.
D) increasing focal spot size.

C

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58

Which of the following is a type of primary shielding?
A) lead apron
B) shadow shield
C) shaped contact shield
D) collimation

D

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