Exam 1 questions from everything part 2

1) The functional cell, responsible for sending impulses that are sensory and motor, in the nervous

system, is known as

a. Ganglions

b. Neurons

c. Neuroglia

d. A and b are correct

e. B and c are correct

Neurons

2) Which of the following statements describes a neuron the best

a. Is a bundle of fascicles and is surrounded by DRCT known as perimysium

b. Is an excitable cell that generates and carries electrical signals

c. Is responsible for the myelination of axons

d. It is only found branching from the CNS

e. It only innervates muscle fibers

Is an excitable cell that generates and carries electrical signals

3) What is the primary role of autonomic ganglia in regulating functions such as blood pressure at

the target level

a. They directly innervate target organs without synapsing

b. They serve as relay stations where preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic

neurons

c. They generate action potentials independently from the central nervous system

d. They inhibit all autonomic reflexes to maintain homeostasis

e. They help as the connection between the autonomic neuron and the target cell

They serve as relay stations where preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons

4) Cells create electrical signals because

a. They are always charged and firing a constant signal at all times

b. They don’t create electrical signals; they just moved them from one place to another

c. They have a “machinery” that fires a signal every so often

d. They respond to a change in their resting membrane potential due to the flux of ions

across their membrane

e. Electricity is their only way of communication

They respond to a change in their resting membrane potential due to the flux of ions across their membrane

5) To which ion(s) is the resting cell membrane most permeable to

a. K, Na, Cl and Ca equally

b. K, Na, and Cl

c. K and Na

d. K, Na, and Ca

e. K only

K only

6) Upon activation of a cell, a sudden (increase, decrease) in Na+ permeability allows Na+ to

(leave/enter) the cell moving (down, against) its concentration gradient and (hyperpolarize,

depolarize, repolarize) the membrane potential of a cell.

a. Increase, enter, down, depolarize

b. Increase, leave, down, repolarize

c. Decrease, enter, against, depolarize

d. Decrease, enter, down, repolarize

e. Increase, leave, against, hyperpolarize

Increase, enter, down, depolarize

7) In the axon terminal, (mechanical, voltage, chemical) gated Ca++ channels open in response to

the activation of the neuron, allowing Ca++ to move from (cytoplasm/ECF) to (cytoplasm, ECF).

This movement causes the release of neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicle.

a. Mechanical, cytoplasm, ECF

b. Voltage, cytoplasm, ECF

c. Chemical, ECF, Cytoplasm

d. Mechanical, ECF, Cytoplasm

e. Voltage, ECF, Cytoplasm

Voltage, ECF, Cytoplasm

8) Which of the following defines a graded potential the best

a. Is a change in membrane potential with varying degrees of magnitude

b. The stronger the triggering event the stronger the graded potential

c. It is decremental as it moves down the soma towards the action hillock

d. It is regulated by IPSPs and EPSPs

e. All of them are true

All of them are true

For the following 3 questions you will need to look at the following diagram

B

X

A

C

Information given: An EPSP from neuron A causes a

10 mV change (from RMP); an IPSP from neuron B

causes a 6 mV change and; an EPSP from neuron C

causes 6 mV change. Use this information to answer

the questions posed below.

Figure 1. Neurons A, B, C and X, where X is the postsynaptic neuron.

Questions:

9) What happens when ALL graded potentials reach the axon hillock (trigger zone) at the same

time?

a. The intensity is too strong and the neuron dies

b. The stimulus is strong enough to reach threshold and create an action potential

c. The summed graded potential of all 3 neurons will be bellow threshold creating no effect

d. Graded potentials never reach the trigger zone no matter what

e. None of these are true

The summed graded potential of all 3 neurons will be bellow threshold creating no effect

10) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) would have what effect on the postsynaptic neuron?

a. Depolarization

b. Repolarization

c. Hyperpolarization

d. Absolute refractory period

e. Depends on the type of receptor on the postsynaptic membrane

Hyperpolarization

11) Given the information above, which of the following would be true?

a. summation of A and X would reach threshold

b. summation of C and A would create an action potential

c. stimulation by A alone would create an action potential

d. stimulation by B would be a subthreshold depolarization

e. summation of B and C would be a graded potential with the net value of 12 mV

depolarization

Summation of C and A would create an action potential

12) Again, given the information above, which of the following would be false?

a. summation of B and C would not change membrane

b. summation of B would be an IPSP

c. summation of C and A = suprathreshold stimuli

d. stimulation by A would depolarize the cell

e. repeated stimulation by A could spatially summate and reach threshold

Repeated stimulation by A could spatially summate and reach threshold

13) Which of the following statements is true when comparing GP with APs

a. Graded potentials vary in magnitude while AP is an all or nothing event

b. Graded potentials are decremental while AP are not

c. Graded potentials have no absolute refractory period while AP do

d. Graded potential occurs at cell body while AP occurs at axon hillock

e. All of the above statements are correct

Graded potentials vary in magnitude while AP is an all-or-nothing event

14) The all-or-none principle states that

a. all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.

b. all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce action

potentials of identical magnitude.

c. the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action

potential.

d. only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.

e. only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.

All stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce action potentials of identical magnitude

15) A greater than normal stimulus can trigger an action potential during relative refractory period

but not during absolute refractory period because during absolute all the Na+ channels are

either closed or inactive so no stimulus can create a change.

a. True

b. False

True

16) Why is it that an action potential cannot reverse and move back towards the cell body when

Na+ channels open in the middle of the axon causing depolarization to spread both ways

a. There are other compounds that prevent the moving back of the action potential

b. Na+ channels don’t open in the middle of the axon

c. The refractory period prevents the AP from going back towards the soma

d. There is an electrical “door” in certain regions of the axon that closes as the AP moves

forward

e. The statement is incorrect; AP does travel both ways

The refractory period prevents the AP from going back towards the soma

17) Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to AP traveling in a neuron

a. The larger an axon (wider diameter) the slower it is

b. The lower the temperature the faster it is

c. The presence of myelination makes the conduction faster

d. A and B are incorrect

e. They are all correct

A and B are incorrect

18) What happens to the likelihood of firing an action potential when the concentration of ECF K+

increases?

a. The RMP decreases making it impossible to a neuron to fire an AP

b. The RMP becomes more positive and therefore closer to the threshold so a smaller than

normal stimulus could trigger a response

c. The excess K increases activity of the channels for exchange so the depolarization is

more spread over time reducing the frequencies of action potentials

d. A and C are correct

e. B and C are correct

B and C are correct

19) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential.

1. sodium channels are inactivated

2. voltage-regulated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of

the cell, initiating repolarization

3. sodium channels regain their normal properties

4. a graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold

5. a temporary hyperpolarization occurs

6. sodium channel activation occurs

7. sodium ions enter the cell and further depolarization occurs

The proper sequence of these events is

a. 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1.

b. 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3.

c. 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5.

d. 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5.

e. 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1.

4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3

20) Which of the following is NOT a method used to clean up the synaptic cleft of the Nt and end

target cell activation

a. Diffusion of Nt into cardiovascular system

b. Up-take of Nt by a neighboring neuron

c. Re-uptake of Nt by original neuron

d. Degradation of Nt by enzyme

e. They ALL represent methods in which we can end transmission by cleaning synaptic cleft

from Nt.

They ALL represent methods in which we can end transmission by cleaning synaptic cleft

from Nt.

1) List the divisions of the brain from the “lowest” to the “highest” in terms of info. processing

1. Medulla Oblongata

2. Cerebrum

3. Hypothalamus

4. Cerebellum

5. Pons

a. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4

b. 3, 4, 2, 1, 5

c. 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

d. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5

e. 1, 5, 3, 4, 2

1, 3, 5, 2, 4 — Medulla → Hypothalamus → Pons → Cerebrum → Cerebellum

2) The 3 vital centers of the CNS are located in

a. Pons

b. Cerebral cortex

c. Midbrain

d. Medulla oblongata

e. Cerebral peduncles

Medulla oblongata — Contains the major vital centers for cardiovascular, respiratory, and digestive reflexes.

3) If a patient lost all regulation of ventilation it would indicate a problem with which areas

a. Hypothalamus

b. Pons

c. Medulla oblongata

d. A and b

e. B and c

B and C — Pons and medulla both help regulate ventilation.

4) What region of the brain is known as the “relay center” for ALL sensory information

a. Thalamus

b. Hypothalamus

c. Epithalamus

d. Corpus collosum

e. Cerebral peduncles

Thalamus — Major relay center for sensory information to the cerebral cortex.

5) An infarct (tissue necrosis/death) in the thalamus after a stroke, could show numbness and

tingling on a patient’s body. This is because

a. The thalamus is the primary motor control center of the brain

b. The thalamus directly generates conscious perception of sensory stimuli

c. The thalamus only processes visual and auditory information

d. The thalamus acts as a relay station for most sensory information before reaching the

cortex

e. The thalamus is primarily involved in regulating autonomic functions and has no role in

sensation

The thalamus acts as a relay station for most sensory information before reaching the cortex.

6) The formation of memories, the ability to make predictions, the mechanics of language,

complex thought and analysis are functions of the

a. Corpus collosum

b. Thalamus

c. Cerebral cortex

d. Cerebellum

e. Arbor vitae

Cerebral cortex — Responsible for higher cognitive functions.

7) Which of the following best explains the role of the hypothalamus in a patient with the following

symptoms: excessive thirst, frequent urination, and difficulty regulating body temperature.

a. It controls voluntary motor movements

b. It is the relay center of the brain

c. It regulates homeostasis of autonomic functions

d. It is responsible for regulating emotions, memory, and visceral organs

e. It has no role in the control of autonomic or endocrine functions

It regulates homeostasis of autonomic functions — The hypothalamus regulates thirst, temperature, endocrine activity, etc.

8) What region of the brain is responsible for emotion, memory, and learning

a. The limbic system

b. The amygdala

c. The cingulated gyrus

d. The insula

e. The hypothalamus

The limbic system — Strongly involved in emotion, memory, and learning.

9) The autonomic nervous system is responsible for the _____________ control of three effector

tissues: cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and ______________

a. Involuntary/somatic tissue

b. Voluntary/somatic tissue

c. Involuntary/glandular tissue

d. Voluntary/glandular tissue

e. Voluntary/skeletal muscle

Involuntary/glandular tissue — ANS controls cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands.

10) The parasympathetic division has __________ receptors between the pre and post- ganglionic

neurons and ________ receptors at the effector

a. Nicotinic/muscarinic

b. Muscarinic/adrenergic

c. Adrenergic/cholinergic

d. Cholinergic/adrenergic

e. Nicotinic/adrenergic

Nicotinic/muscarinic — Parasympathetic: ACh → nicotinic receptors in ganglia; ACh → muscarinic receptors at effectors.

11) The sympathetic division uses ______ as a neurotransmitter for cholinergic receptors and

______ for adrenergic receptors.

a. ACh/ACh

b. NE/E

c. Ach/NE

d. NE/Ach

e. E/Ach

ACh/NE — ACh acts on cholinergic receptors; norepinephrine (NE) acts on adrenergic receptors.

12) Together, alpha and beta receptors are known as _________ receptors, and are found at the

________ of the ________ division

a. Cholinergic/peripheral ganglion/parasympathetic

b. Adrenergic/peripheral ganglion/sympathetic

c. Cholinergic/effector/sympathetic

d. Cholinergic/effector/parasympathetic

e. Adrenergic/effector/sympathetic

Adrenergic/effector/sympathetic — Alpha and beta receptors are adrenergic receptors located on sympathetic effectors.

13) A patient with a disorder in the sympathetic division would show problems with what action

a. Urination

b. Excitement

c. Digestion

d. Defecation

e. Salivation

Excitement — Sympathetic activity produces the “fight-or-flight” response.

14) With the exception of olfaction, all sensory pathways first travel to the __________, which acts

as a relay and processing station.

a. cerebrum

b. thalamus

c. cerebellum

d. hypothalamus

e. medulla oblongata

Thalamus — All major sensory pathways except olfaction relay through the thalamus.

15) Antagonistic control of efferent output is typical of the __________ division.

a. somatic

b. sensory

c. autonomic

d. A and B

e. A and C

Autonomic — The ANS commonly uses antagonistic sympathetic/parasympathetic control

16) A decrease in cerebrospinal fluid production indicates physiological problems with

a. choroid plexus.

b. arachnoid villi.

c. frontal sinuses.

d. pia mater.

e. ventricles.

Choroid plexus — The choroid plexus produces CSF.

17) What type of neuroglia would you say was not working properly if a patient had a drug

administered for a problem in his kidneys but started showing symptoms or effects on his/her

brain?

a. Astrocytes

b. Schwann

c. Oligodendrocytes

d. Microglia

e. Ependymal

Astrocytes — Help form the blood-brain barrier, limiting substances from entering brain tissue.

18) The “enteric division” regulates local activities within which body system

a. Cardiovascular

b. Lymphatic

c. Respiratory

d. Digestive

e. Endocrine

Digestive — The enteric nervous system regulates local digestive activities.

19) Which of the following would be an adequate stimulus for a mechanoreceptor?

a. oxygen

b. cell stretch

c. photon of light

d. cold temperature

e. Ph

Cell stretch — Mechanoreceptors respond to mechanical deformation/stretch.

20) Phasic receptors

a. are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity.

b. slowly decrease the frequency of action potentials generated to a constant stimulus.

c. are attune to parameters that the body must continuously assess.

d. once threshold is reached by a stimulus will always generate action potentials

e. change their sensitivity in phases going from slow to fast

are quick to adapt to a particular stimulus intensity. — Phasic receptors respond strongly initially, then decrease firing during a constant stimulus.

21) The area monitored by a single receptor is called

a. Neural area

b. Receptor field

c. Receptive field

d. Receptor specificity

e. Receptor modality

Receptive field — The area monitored by a single sensory receptor/neuron.

22) A patient comes to see you because they lose balance every time they spin while dancing or

when they turn around really fast. You suspect damage to the hair cells which are found in the

a. Ampulla

b. Vestibule

c. Auricle

d. Saccule

e. Crista

Crista — Cristae in the semicircular ducts detect rotational/angular acceleration.

23) If you close your eyes and someone feeds you a piece of steak or an oyster, you are able to

distinguish between the two textures because of which papilla

a. Fungiform

b. Foliate

c. Filiform

d. Circumvallate

e. They are all associated with taste buds

Filiform — Filiform papillae provide texture sensation but do not contain taste buds.

24) A 35-yo photographer visits the ophthalmologist complaining of difficulty focusing on fine

details while reading and editing images. What structure would you say is the most important to

check

a. Optic disc

b. Retina

c. Fovea

d. Lens

e. Choroid

Fovea — Provides the highest visual acuity and fine-detail vision.

25) A decrease in ones perception of a stimulus whose intensity has not changed due to higher

neural inhibition is known as

a. habituation.

b. convergence.

c. divergence.

d. Adaptation

e. Illusion

habituation — Decreased perception of an unchanged stimulus due to increased neural inhibition.

1) A 25yo woman exercises outdoors on a hot day. Her body temperature rises, triggering

sweating and increased blood flow to the skin, eventually returning her temperature

toward normal levels. This scenario describes:

a Positive feedback

b Permanent maintenance of a fixed internal value

c Homeostasis

d Loss of regulation due to external stimuli

e Variation of body conditions with control mechanisms

Homeostasis

2) A 30yo receives an IV solution with a higher solute concentration than his ICF causing his

cells to shrink. The solution is said to be:

a Hypo-osmotic and hypotonic

b Iso-osmotic and isotonic

c Hyperosmotic and hypotonic

d Hyperosmotic and hypertonic

e Hypo-osmotic and hypertonic

Hyperosmotic and hypertonic

3) A 37yo woman develops a fever and inflammation after an infection. Her body responds

to increased temperature while immune cells simultaneously release signaling molecules

that bind to receptors on nearby cells to coordinate the inflammatory response. Which

of the following best describes the signals involved in this scenario:

a Physical signals include ligands and cytokines; chemical signals include pressure

and temperature

b Physical signals include temperature and pressure, chemical signals include

ligands and cytokines

c Physical signals require receptors, whereas chemical signals do not

d Chemical signals include only hormones, while physical signals include all

immune responses

e None of the above are true regarding physical and chemical signaling

Physical signals include temperature and pressure, chemical signals include ligands and cytokines

4) A 40yo man presents to the ER after a motor vehicle accident. He reports loss of voluntary

movement in his lower limbs but retains involuntary regulation of heart rate and

digestion. After evaluation, you conclude that this division is primarily affected

a Autonomic nervous system

b Sympathetic nervous system

c Parasympathetic nervous system

d Somatic nervous system

e Enteric nervous system

Somatic nervous system