[Guide Questions] From Review Notes

Proverbs 16:3

Saturated: alkane

Unsaturated: alkene, alkyne

Which among the ff HC is saturated? unsaturated?

methane

What is the simplest HC?

Ketone

The general formula of CH₃CH₂COCH₃ is representation of:

CnH2n+2

What is the general formula given to alkanes?

Ester

Which among the following is the product of chemically reacting an alcohol and carboxylic acid?

increased; increased

• As the number of carbon atoms in a formula _______ [increase /decrease] ,

• The number of possible isomers _______ [increase/decrease] .

Acid

____- any species that can donate a proton (H+) to another molecule.

True

[True or False]

• Benzene is an example of cyclic organic compound.

False

[True or False]

• In an organic reaction, catalyst are consumed and become part of the final product.

(C) Carboxylic acids

Household vinegar is an example of:

(A) Esters

(B) Alcohols

(C) Carboxylic acids

(D) Ethers

(E) Aldehydes

(A) -one

Which among the following suffixes is added to ketones?

(A) -one

(B) -oate

(C) -yl

(D) -al

(C) Thiol

Which among the following contains a sulfhydryl group?

(A) Ether

(B) Ketone

(C) Thiol

(D) Cyanide

(B) Ketone

Which of the following functional groups contains a carbonyl group?

(A) Alcohol

(B) Ketone

(C) Ether

(D) Amine

(A) Peptide

Amides are found in what type of bond?

(A) Peptide

(B) Ionic

(C) Hydrogen

(D) Amino acid

(D) Acid anhydride

Derivative of carboxylic acid which is formed from the removal of one molecule of water in two RCOOH.

(A) Ester

(B) Acid amide

(C) Acid halide

(D) Acid anhydride

(A) Acetone (Propanone)

The so-called nail polish remover is:

(A) Acetone

(B) Gamot na pula

(C) Muriatic acid

(D) Acetic acid

(A) Primary

The formula R-CH₂-OH is an example of _________ alcohol:

(A) Primary

(B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary

(D) Quaternary

(C) Ethers

Organic compounds that have two alkyl groups bonded to an oxygen atom:

(A) Esters

(B) Alcohols

(C) Ethers

(D) Aldehydes

(A) Phenols

These are class of organic compounds where the hydroxyl group is attached to a C₆H₆ (Benzene) ring:

(A) Phenols

(B) Benzene

(C) Hexane

(D) Petroleum ether

D. 2 and 3

Which among the following statement is correct about phenols?

1. Sometimes called as carbonic acid

2. Used by Joseph Lister as antiseptic/disinfectant during surgery

3. Toxicity can be managed with glycerin

A. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2

C. 1 and 3

D. 2 and 3

E. 2 only

A. Ethyl alcohol

Which among the following is the widely consumed recreational drug?

• A. Ethyl alcohol

• B. Methamphetamine

• C. Cocaine

• D. Marijuana

E. Anti-cancer

Alcohol can be used as which among the following, except:

• A. Disinfectant

• B. Antiseptic

• C. Solvent

• D. CNS depressant

• E. Anti-cancer

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase

Which among the following enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of alcohol to acetaldehyde?

• A. Alcohol dehydrogenase

• B. Aldehyde dehydrogenase

• C. zymase

• D. invertase

• E. reductase

C. Ethylene oxide

It is a colorless, flammable gas, used to sterilized thermosensitive medical equipment and some pharmaceuticals:

• A. Phenol

• B. Formalin

• C. Ethylene oxide

• D. KMnO4

• E. Ether

A. Formaldehyde

Methenamine is decomposed into ____ at a urine pH of 5.5. This is responsible for methenamine’s urinary tract antiseptic property:

• A. Formaldehyde

• B. Sodium dithionate

• C. Acetone

• D. Carboxylic acid

• E. Ethanol

A. Povidone iodine

A combination of non – ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:

• A. Povidone iodine

• B. Strong iodine solution

• C. Iodine tincture

• D. I2 in KI solution

C. 8th

The antibacterial activity of alcohol increases with increasing molecular weight until the ___ carbon only.

• A. 6th

• B. 7th

• C. 8th

• D. 1st

• E. 2nd

A. Phenol

A general protoplasmic poison:

• A. Phenol

• B. Ethanol

• C. Isopropyl

• D. Ethylene oxide

• E. Glutaraldehyde

A. Cresol

A methylated phenol that is yellow to brownish-yellow liquid that has a characteristic creosote odor:

• A. Cresol

• B. Thymol

• C. Eugenol

• D. Resorcinol

• E. Hydroquinone

C. Streptomycin

The single first line agent aminoglycoside antibiotics for TB:

• A. Rifampicin

• B. Capreomycin

• C. Streptomycin

• D. Fluoroquinolones

A. Halazone

Chemically known as p-dichlorosulfamoylbenzoic acid:

—a white crystalline, photosensitive compound with faint chlorine odor that can be used to disinfect water to make it potable:

• A. Halazone

• B. Chloroazodin

• C. Oxychlorosene sodium

• D. Methylbenzethonium Cl-

B. 1 and 2

Which is correct about carbol-fuchsin solution?

1. Component of castellani’s paint

2. Treatment of fungal infections

3. Mixture of chloride of rosaniline and p-rosaniline chloride

• A. 1, 2, and 3

• B. 1 and 2

• C. 1 and 3

• D. 2 and 3

• E. 2 only

A. Effective at high concentration against all possible microorganism

Ideal characteristics of preservatives, except:

• A. Effective at high concentration against all possible microorganism

• B. Generally non-toxic

• C. Compatible with other ingredients

• D. Stable for the shelf life of the products

B. 1 and 3

An example of antifungal antibiotics:

1. Nystatin

2. Tolnaftate

3. Griseofulvin

• A. 1 and 2

• B. 1 and 3

• C. 2 and 3

• D. 1, 2, and3

C. Directly Observed Treatment Short course

In DOTS, a trained health care worker or other designated individual (excluding a family member) provides the prescribed TB drugs and watches the patient swallow every dose. DOTS stands for:

• A. Directly Observed Toxic Syndrome.

• B. Directly Observed Therapy Outcome course.

• C. Directly Observed Treatment Short course.

• D. Directly Observable Tuberculosis Sign and Symptoms

A. Chemical synthesis

Synthetic antibacterial agents such as quinolones are discovered via:

• A. Chemical synthesis

• C. Serendipitous discovery

• B. Random screening of plants

• D. Accident

A. 1, 2, and 3

Sulfanilamide is a generic term that denotes:

1. Aniline-substituted sulfonamides/sulfanilamides

2. Prodrugs that generate active sulfanilamides

3. non-aniline sulfonamide like mafenide acetate

• A. 1, 2, and 3

• B. 1 and 2

• C. 2 and 3

• D. 1 and 3

C. Sodium dithionate

The stain of the urinary analgesic phenazopyridine HCl can be removed using:

• A. Urinary antiseptic

• B. Urinary analgesic

• C. Sodium dithionate

• D. Red orange

C. Lomefloxacin

The most phototoxic quinolones:

• A. Travofloxacin

• B. Quinacrine

• C. Lomefloxacin

• D. Moxifloxacin

• E. Sparfloxacin

B. 1, 2, and 3

Which among the following is correctly matched?

1. Rif – RNA polymerase inhibitor

2. EMB – inhibition of arabinogalactan

3. INH – inhibitor of mycolic acid synthesis

• A. 1 and 2

• B. 1, 2, and 3

• C. 1 and 3

• D. 2 and 3

• E. 2 only

A. Sulfa drugs

The sulfonamides are collective called as _____drugs.

• A. Sulfa drugs

• B. Dapsone

• C. Sulfones

• D. CRANK

C. 1 and 3

Which among the following is correct about mafenide acetate:

1. Can be used for burn therapy

2. Patient acceptance is high

3. Homologue of sulfanilamide

• A. 1 and 2

• B. 2 and 3

• C. 1 and 3

• D. 1, 2, and 3

E. 1 and 2

Common problem associated with sulfa drugs:

1. Crystalluria

2. Hemolytic anemia

3. Optical neuritis

• A. 1, 2, and 3

• B. 1 and 3

• C. 1 only

• D. 2 and 3

• E. 1 and 2

A. 1 and 2

Upon bioactivation of sulfasalazine, which among the following products are produced?

1. m-aminosalicylic acid

2. Sulfapyridine

3. Sulfisoxzazole

• A. 1 and 2

• B. 2 and 3

• C. 1 and 3

• D. 1, 2, and 3

• E. 1 only

C. Macrolides

Which among the following antibiotics can target the 50s ribosomes?

• A. Aminoglycosides

• B. Tetracyclines

• C. Macrolides

• D. Dapsone

A. Penicillins

Antibiotics that target the cell wall:

• A. Penicillins

• B. Nystatin

• C. Chloramphenicol

• D. Lincomycins

1 and 3

Acid resistant, except:

1. Penicillin G

2. Penicillin V

3. Benzylpenicillin

4. Amoxicillin

• A. 1 only

• B. 2 only

• C. 3 only

• D. 4 only

• E. 2 and 4

• F. 1 and 3

D. Nafcillin

Examples of isoxazoyl penicillin, except:

• A. Oxacillin

• B. Cloxacillin

• C. Dicloxacillin

• D. Nafcillin

A. Tazobactam

A beta-lactamase inhibitor with penicillanic acid sulfone:

• A. Tazobactam

• B. Clavulanic acid

• C. Sulbactam

• D. Piperacillin

C. Macrolides

Amongst those antibiotics that act by inhibiting protein synthesis, several members this drug class are known to produce side effects related to both drug interactions caused by inhibition of P-450 and cardiac effects (QT prolongation/Torsade de pointes). Which drug class is this?

• A. Aminoglycosides

• C. Macrolides

• E. Tetracycline

• B. Fluoroquinolones

• D. Rifamycins

C. I and III

Which among the following is/are example of beta-lactamase inhibitor:

I. Thienamycin

II. Imipenem

III. Tazobactam

• A. I and II

• B. III only

• C. I and III

• D. II and III

B. 1 and 2

Which among the following is correct about cephalosporins?

1. Contains beta-lactam dihydrothiazine ring

2. Derivative of 7-aminocephalosporanic acid

3. Contain a highly substituted 1,3-diaminocyclohexane central ring

• A. 1 only

• B. 1 and 2

• C. 2 and 3

• D. 1, 2, and 3

A. Ceftaroline

An example of 5th generation cephalosporins:

• A. Ceftaroline

• B. Ceftazidime

• C. Cephalexin

• D. Cefazolin

• E. Ceftibuten

E. 3 and 4

Which among the following is correct about aminoglycosides?

1. Contains beta-lactam dihydrothiazine ring

2. Derivative of 7-aminocephalosporanic acid

3. Contain a highly substituted 1,3-diaminocyclohexane central ring

4. Strongly basic antibiotics

• A. 1 only

• B. 1 and 2

• C. 2 and 3

• D. 1, 2, and 3

• E. 3 and 4

A. Amantadine

Antiviral that has effect as anti-Parkinsonian agent:

• A. Amantadine

• B. Remdesivir

• C. Tocilizumab

• D. Lamivudine

• E. Rimantadine

A. Thymidine

Trifluridine is structural analog of which among the following?

• A. Thymidine

• B. Guanosine

• C. Adenosine

• D. Uridine

A. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

Mechanism of action of Idoxuridine:

• A. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

• B. Fusion inhibitor

• C. Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

• D. Inhibitor of viral RNA polymerase

A. Antiretroviral

Group of drugs that can be used for the treatment and management of HIV is called:

• A. Antiretroviral

• B. Sulfa drugs

• C. Immunoglobulins

• D. Vaccines

A. HAART

Lamivudine, Tenofovir, Efavirenz are combination of anti-HIV drugs that is commonly called as:

• A. HAART

• B. TMP-SMX 

• C. MDMA

• D. Fusion inhibitor

• E. Sulfa Drugs

C. Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

Zidovudine is an example of:

• A. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

• B. Fusion inhibitor

• C. Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

• D. Inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase

B. HIV protease inhibitor

Mechanism of action of Ritonavir:

• A. Inhibitor of viral DNA Polymerase

• B. HIV protease inhibitor

• C. Fusion inhibitor

• D. Inhibitor of reverse transcriptase

• E. Inhibitor of viral RNA polymerase

E. 1 only

Common adverse reaction of HIV Protease inhibitors:

1. Dyslipidemia

2. Rashes

3. Hepatitis
   

• A. 1, 2, and 3

• B. 2 and 3

• C. 1 and 2

• D. 1 and 3

• E. 1 only

D. Oseltamivir

Which among the following antivirals is effective against viral influenza?

• A. Acyclovir

• B. Metronidazole chicken pox

• C. Amoxicillin

• D. Oseltamivir

• E. Vidarabine

C. Pentafuside

Inhibits formation of the fusion component conformation of gp41.

• A. Delavirdine

• B. Indinavir

• C. Pentafuside

• D. Efavirenz

• E. Indinavir

A. Lamivudine

Nucleoside analogue similar to ddC.

• A. Lamivudine

• B. Stavudine

• C. Zalcitabine

• D. Azidothymidine

A. Bleomycin

Pulmonary fibrosis is associated with the use of:

• A. Bleomycin

• B. Cisplatin

• C. Methotrexate

• D. Nitrosoureas

• E. Vincristine

B. Mechlorethamine

a dialkylating agent, DOC for Hodgkin’s disease:

• A. Thiotepa

• B. Mechlorethamine

• C. Ifosfamide

• D. Cisplatin

A. Streptozotocin

Which among the following alkylating agents can induce hyperglycemia on animal models?

• A. Streptozotocin

• B. Streptomycin

• C. Alloxan

• D. Altrenamine

A. Organoplatinums

Which among the following alkylating agents establishes cross-links within and between DNA strands?

• A. Organoplatinums

• B. Nitrosoureas

• C. Nitrogen mustards

• D. Procarbazine

C. Etoposide

Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an anti-metabolite?

• A. Cytarabine

• B. Methotrexate

• C. Etoposide

• D. Thioguanine

A. Thymidylate synthetase

Enzyme inhibited by Methotrexate:

• A. Thymidylate synthetase

• B. DNA polymerase

• C. DNA gyrase

• D. Dihydropteroate

D. Capecitabine

Which among the following is not an example of purine analog?

• A. 6-mercaptopurine

• B. Fludarabine

• C. Cladribine

• D. Capecitabine

B. Vidarabine

Which among the following is an example pyrimidine analog, except:

• A. Cytarabine

• B. Vidarabine

• C. 5-fluorouracil

• D. Decitabine

• E. Tegafur

A. Dactinomycin

The first antibiotic with anti-malignant property binds non-covalently to double stranded DNA by partial intercalation between the adjacent G-C bases resulting to inhibition of DNA function.

• A. Dactinomycin

• B. Bleomycin

• C. Doxorubicin

• D. Daunorubicin

B. Topoisomerase II

Doxorubicin inhibits:

• A. Topoisomerase I

• B. Topoisomerase II

• C. DNA polymerase

• D. Tubulin synthesis

• E. Protein kinases

D. Mitomycin C

An example of bioreductive alkylating agent:

• A. Bleomycin

• B. Doxorubicin

• C. Plicamycin

• D. Mitomycin C

A. Etoposide

The anticancer obtained from mayapple or mandrake:

• A. Etoposide

• B. Vincristine

• C. Taxol

• D. Topotecan

A. Topoisomerase I

Irinotecan inhibits:

• A. Topoisomerase I

• B. Topoisomerase II

• C. DNA Polymerase

• D. Tubulin synthesis

• E. Protein kinases

C. Vinca alkaloids

This drug promotes the tubulin disrupting formation and function of the mitotic spindle by arresting mitosis by inhibiting the polymerization of microtubules:

• A. Bleomycin

• B. Thiotepa

• C. Vinca alkaloids

• D. Cisplatin

• E. Imatinib

D. Erlotinib

This drug can inhibit the action of one or more protein kinases.

• A. Bleomycin

• B. Vinblastine

• C. Taxol

• D. Erlotinib

• E. Irinotecan

A. Bicalutamide

An androgen receptor antagonist:

• A. Bicalutamide

• B. Depo-provera

• C. Megestrol acetate

• D. Tamoxifen